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No, Jesus never said the exact three words, "I am God". But Jesus also never said the exact four words, "I am a prophet" or the exact four words "I am a man," but we know he was both a prophet and a man. It is not necessary for Jesus to say the exact phrase "I am a man" for us to know that he was a man. Likewise, it is not necessary for Jesus to utter the exact three words "I am God" in order for us to determine whether or not he is divine. Jesus may not have said the exact sentence "I am God" but he did claim the divine name for himself (Exo. 3:14 with John 8:58) and he also received worship (Matt. 2:2; 14:33; 28:9; John 9:35-38).
When Moses was up at the Mount speaking to God, Moses asked God what his name was. God said, "I AM WHO I AM”; and He said, “Thus you shall say to the sons of Israel, ‘I AM has sent me to you,’” (Exodus 3:14). In John 8:58 Jesus said, "Truly, truly, I say to you, before Abraham was born, I am.” Right after this the Jews pick up stones to throw at him. Later, in John 10:30-33 Jesus claimed to be one with the Father and the Jews wanted to stone him again because they said to Jesus, "You, being a man, make yourself out to be God." Jesus had claimed the divine name for his own in the Jews wanted to kill him for it. Therefore, from Jesus' own mouth we see that he was claiming to be God.

The words "I am"

Now please understand that anyone can say the words "I am" and it does not mean that he is claiming to be God. Someone could say, "I am over here." That is not claiming the divine name. Likewise, someone could say, "I am hungry," or "I am sick." Neither example is claiming divinity because the use of term "I am" in context clearly shows us that is not what is occurring. But, in John 8:58 when Jesus said "before Abraham was born, I am," the Jews knew exactly what he was saying. Notice that he says before Abraham was born (using the past tense) and then he switches to the present tense when he says "I am." Jesus switches tenses of the verbs on purpose so that when he does so in the context of referencing Abraham, Jesus is clearly drawing the Jews' attention to the Old Testament Scriptures and then using a present tense form of the verb "to be" by saying "I AM". Someone who says "I am hungry" is not drawing attention to the Old Testament Scriptures for context.
Jesus was clearly causing the Jews to reflect upon the divine name "I am" that Jesus used for himself. We know that they understood this because as is said above, they said, "You, being a man, make yourself out to be God," (John 10:33

2007-09-06 07:49:15 · 20 answers · asked by Graham 5 in Society & Culture Religion & Spirituality

I see the atheist "short bus" has arrived.
Please ask your mommies to help you answer in the future. here's a cookie!.

2007-09-06 07:54:25 · update #1

Ummmm, as the header said...Did Jesus ever say I am God?

2007-09-06 07:55:54 · update #2

20 answers

In Mark 14:60, Jesus was arrested and being judged at a mock trial in the middle of the night.

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Again the high priest asked him, "Are you the Christ,[f] the Son of the Blessed One?"

62"I am," said Jesus. "And you will see the Son of Man sitting at the right hand of the Mighty One and coming on the clouds of heaven."

63The high priest tore his clothes. "Why do we need any more witnesses?" he asked. 64"You have heard the blasphemy. What do you think?"

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The Jewish Religious leaders were so irate because they knew EXACTLY what Jesus was claiming. He was telling them they were right, he is the Son of God - the Messiah, the Savior!

2007-09-06 07:59:30 · answer #1 · answered by heeboy3 4 · 7 1

He didn't reject their worship or obeisance because he knew that his father Jehovah had appointed him as King.John 18:36,37 In ancient times people would do obeisance to any human king. As for Thomas saying My Lord and My God. That was only an exclamation of joy or amazement. If somebody that you loved very much would come to you back from the dead you would probably touch that person and say O My God Oh My God Oh My Lord Oh My Lord. It would be something incredible to believe,but yet it was happening right in front of your eyes. Besides notice what the last verse of that same chapter says John 20:31 But these have been written down that you may believe that Jesus is.Is what ? God ? No that Jesus is the Christ the Son of God.

2016-04-03 07:09:44 · answer #2 · answered by Anonymous · 0 0

The Greek verb used at John 8:58, 'eimi', is literally in the present tense, but in view of its being preceded by the aorist infinitive clause which refers to Abraham’s past, the Greek verb 'eimi' must be viewed as a historical present.

Hadley and Allen’s Greek Grammar says, in section 828: Historical Present : "In vivid narration, a past event is often thought of and expressed as present: The present in this use is freely interchanged with the past tenses."

At Exodus 3:14 the Greek Septuagint Version (the translation that was often quoted by the apostles in the first century C.E.) reads, 'ego eimi ho Ohn', “I am the Being.” This is quite different from the simple use of the words 'ego eimi′ (I am) at John 8:58.

The verb 'eimi′, at John 8:58, is evidently in the historical present, as Jesus was speaking about himself in relation to Abraham’s past. Numerous translators indicate this in their renderings. For example, An American Translation reads: “I existed before Abraham was born!”

At John 10:33, it was the Jews who accused Jesus of blasphemy because they thought he was making himself out to be a god. They did not believe that he was either God or God's son.

"Jesus answered them: “Is it not written in your Law, ‘I said: “You are gods”’? If he called ‘gods’ those against whom the word of God came, and yet the Scripture cannot be nullified, do you say to me whom the Father sanctified and dispatched into the world, ‘You blaspheme,’ because I said, I am God’s Son? If I am not doing the works of my Father, do not believe me." (John 10:34-37).

2007-09-06 22:39:15 · answer #3 · answered by Iron Serpent 4 · 2 0

Rev 1:1 A Revelation by Jesus Christ which God gave him.

John 1:18 No man has seen God at ANYTIME.
John saw Jesus right? Why would he say this?

John 3:16 God gave his only begotten Son.

Paul began alot of his writings with blessed be the God and Father of our Lord Jesus Christ.

Do you believe God's own voice when He spoke at Jesus baptism?
This is my Son the beloved whom I have approved.

Listen to God's Word and stop trying to twist the scriptures to support the trinity.
Satan loves the trinity teaching because it hides the true identity of God Almighty Jehovah.

2007-09-06 08:43:08 · answer #4 · answered by Jason W 4 · 6 1

It looks like he did not intend to be a god.

Matthew 19:17, Mark 10:18
And he said unto him, Why callest thou me good? there is none good but one, that is, God.

Matthew 27:46, Mark 15:34
My God, my God, why hast thou forsaken me?

Mark 16:19
So then after the Lord had spoken unto them, he was received up into heaven, and sat on the right hand of God.

John 8:40
But now ye seek to kill me, a man that hath told you the truth, which I have heard of God.

John 14:28
My Father is greater than I.

John 20:17
I ascend unto my Father, and your Father; and to my God, and your God.

Acts 17:31
Because he hath appointed a day, in the which he will judge the world in righteousness by that man whom he hath ordained; whereof he hath given assurance unto all men, in that he hath raised him from the dead.

1 Corinthians 11:3
The head of Christ is God.

1 Corinthians 15:28
And when all things shall be subdued unto him, then shall the Son also himself be subject unto him that put all things under him, that God may be all in all.

Colossians 3:1
Christ sitteth on the right hand of God.

1 Timothy 2:5
For there is one God, and one mediator between God and men, the man Christ Jesus.

2007-09-06 08:04:30 · answer #5 · answered by Anonymous · 7 1

No, he never did because he wasn't, nor will he ever be Almighty God.
Christ Jesus is God's Son and even stated that the Father is "greater" than he is. If any statement ever proved the trinity doctrine false, it is that one.
I believe what Jesus stated----the doctrines of men mean nothing.
LOBT

2007-09-06 14:44:57 · answer #6 · answered by Micah 6 · 3 0

Obviously, in fulfillment of many, many prophecies, He didn't need to speak whatever EXACT words some people demand (after the event).

Reality is reality. Jesus is the Son of the one true God and is the Christ and Savior.

2007-09-06 07:54:13 · answer #7 · answered by Anonymous · 7 0

A person (after reading the bible) would have to be pretty stupid to think that Jesus is god.

2007-09-06 13:12:44 · answer #8 · answered by Wize Guy 4 · 5 0

so has said Descartes, I think therefore I am. I am as you are saying is just proclaiming existence but not divine. We all are divine taking it from the context in which you want to put it. we are God's creation therefore we have God in us one way or another yet not God. God has Said "He is Allah, the One"

2007-09-06 08:01:59 · answer #9 · answered by jon d 1 · 0 3

The increasingly popular "I AM" as a reference to the Judeo-Christian God is not entirely incorrect, but it is an oversimplification. An expression which more accurately approximates the flavor of the original Hebrew is "I Shall Prove To Be What I Shall Prove To Be"; the Almighty is more than a 'snapshot' in time, but an ongoing manifestation of His own ability to do and be anything.

(Exodus 3:13-14) Moses said to the true God: “Suppose I am now come to the sons of Israel and I do say to them, ‘The God of your forefathers has sent me to you,’ and they do say to me, ‘What is his name?’ What shall I say to them?” 14 At this God said to Moses: “I SHALL PROVE TO BE WHAT I SHALL PROVE TO BE.” And he added: “This is what you are to say to the sons of Israel, ‘I SHALL PROVE TO BE has sent me to you.’”

Leeser, “I WILL BE THAT I WILL BE”
Rotherham, “I Will Become whatsoever I please.”


That Exodus 3:14 expression is rich in meaning, but the Scriptures themselves actually include the Divine Name itself nearly 7000 times. The name "Jehovah" is an English translation of the Hebrew name pronounced as or similar to "Yahweh" or "Yehowah"; the exact original pronunciation is unknown. The four Hebrew characters corresponding to the letters "YHWH" are well-recognized as the biblical personal name of Almighty God, and are universally designated as "the Tetragrammaton" or "the Tetragram".

For centuries, most Jews have superstitiously refrained from pronouncing aloud any form of the divine Name. They base that superstition on the third of the Ten Commandments given to Moses:
(Exodus 20:7) You must not take up the name of Jehovah your God in a worthless way
http://watchtower.org/e/bible/ex/chapter_020.htm?bk=Ex;chp=20;vs=7;citation#bk7

Over the centuries, that Jewish superstition has expanded to also forbid writing or engraving any form of "YHWH", even when simply copying from one of the nearly 7000 occurences in the Hebrew Scriptures. In recent centuries, some superstitious Jews have even forbade unabbreviated EUPHEMISMS for "YHWH"; capitalized terms such as "Tetragrammaton" and (amazingly) even "the Name" are forbidden by such superstitions.

More recently, the Jewish superstition has ballooned out of all reasonableness by also forbidding respectful impersonal TERMS referring to the Almighty; thus many Jews insist upon writing "G-d" or "G~d" rather than "God". They may even refrain from capitalizing impersonal terms such as "Creator" and "Almighty".

Naturally, the religious and superstitious practices of a person are between him and his Creator. However, in recent decades these superstitious Jews have worked to impose their superstitious sensibilities beyond their religious communities, and onto the entire populace. Thus, although "YHWH' is unanimously recognized as the personal name of God, few today use any form of it in their writings and conversation.

Interestingly, Christendom has largely joined with superstitious Jews in suppressing the use of "Yahweh" and "Jehovah". However, it seems that Christiandom's anti-YHWH bias largely devolves from their hatred of Jehovah's Witnesses, the religion almost single-handedly responsible for the growing public recognition that the Almighty God of Judaism and Christianity actually does a personal name.

It seems that too many are more interested in coddling superstition than in allowing intellectual honesty and respect for the Almighty.

Learn more:
http://watchtower.org/e/na/
http://watchtower.org/e/20040122/


Interestingly, Encyclopaedia Judaica says that “the avoidance of pronouncing the name YHWH ... was caused by a misunderstanding of the Third Commandment.”
http://www.jehovantodistajat.fi/e/20040122/article_02.htm

(Psalms 83:18) That people may know that you, whose name is Jehovah, You alone are the Most High over all the earth

(John 17:26) [Jesus said] I have made your name known to them and will make it known, in order that the love with which you loved me may be in them

2007-09-06 08:05:18 · answer #10 · answered by achtung_heiss 7 · 8 2

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