Ancient DNA tests have shown that Mexicans have been in the U.S. since 500 B.C. How can they be illegal?

Question

http://sciencenow.sciencemag.org/cgi/content/full/2007/822/4

"LeBlanc and his colleagues found that about 14% of these samples contained haplogroup A. This haplogroup is extremely rare in the Southwest, but it occurs in about half of the population of Central America. The intermediate frequency in the sample of Western Basketmakers fits with the idea that they migrated from somewhere in central Mexico."

Forenzic tests from ancient DNA in Utah have proven that ancient Mexicans have been here since 500 B.C.

Doesn't that mean that Mexicans are Indigenous people, and hence, cannot be illegal? And if they are illegal, according to whom? According to Whites (Europeans), who are not Indigenous?

Answer 1

I'd say, no, not illegal. Mexicans are clearly descended from Indians.
Whites are clearly descended from Europeans.
The Indians were here first. The White man's borders and reservations were made without their permission.

I think that if Jews can claim Israel after 2,000 years, then Mexicans have the right to be pretty much anywhere in North America, since their DNA/ancestry is obviously already all over the place.

Answer 2

I gotta say that understand completely. I've got a friend who was entering a convenience store minding his own business when an uninsured, unlicensed illegal motorist drove into him and the store he was entering. Now he must to go to the Dr. once a month to have fluid drained from his spinal cord. No one will hire him even though he's willing to sign a workman's comp waiver in order to work. Insurance companies won't insure him. He's forced to be on social security and not even getting enough to support his family much less pay his mortgage. He would much rather be working. This state is a 'no fault' state and the person who hit him and the store got a $45 fine from a judge who said there was nothing else he could do.

Answer 3

BULLSHIT! Illegal has to do with laws. Laws have to do with countries. Countries have to do with borders. There is a clearly defined border between Mexico and the U.S. and it is illegal to cross it without permission. This is the present. The past is interesting but has nothing to do with the present. Mexico is not the United States. The genetic makeup of the Ute has nothing to do with modern day border laws. You have to obey the same laws as everyone else or you are a criminal. Being a racist Mexican doesn't exempt you from being called a criminal when you break the law.

Answer 4

Because in 1846 the United States went to war with Mexico. After a relativly quick butt stomping, where the United States invaded Mexico City, Mexico surrendered and the United States took everything it wanted. To the victor goes the spoils.

Answer 5

Maybe so, but there is a sovereign border now that wasn't there in 500 BC. It's irrelevant now.

The ones who are here illegally crossed into the US did so LOOOOOOOONG after that time, and AFTER the United States of America defined the SW border with Mexico and began to define the immigration laws in the mid-1800s(?).

Answer 6

Please! People are not Americans simply because they're from North and South America. The only people who say that are uneducated idiots who've never been outside the U.S. and think that naming two continents is all that it takes to make a person an American.

Go to Canada and call any of their citizens an American and you're likely to get hit. Go to Mexico and call any of their citizens Americans and they will look at you like you grew a second head with three eyes. People from South America will not take kindly to someone calling them American.

Go to any country in Europe, Asia, or Africa and tell them that you're from the United States. They will be puzzled at first until they realize you mean America.

In the eyes of the world, there is only ONE country called America and it happens to be the one that its own citizens call the United States.

Back to the question, the law specifies legal citizenship based ONLY upon place of birth or naturalization. "Illegal" means not in accordance with the law.

Answer 7

Pretty far stretch there don't you think Chief? Well, if that were the case I guess I should go to Spain and demand that they let me stay in their country because after all, I do have Spanish roots...as well Portuguese...oh let's not forget that I also have Native American blood as well. Guess I should demand Mexico for my rights as well...if you haven't guessed I'm being sarcastic. Times change bud, as do borders, etc. Time to live for the present and future, not the past.

Answer 8

What an ignorant argument.

In the real world, maps were drawn, countries were formed - borders changed due to war or trades. Nomads quite wandering unchecked to different locals. As the USA was formed, the border with the culture (many of whom have Spanish, french and English bloodlines) to the south underwent several changes eventually settling by treaties to where it is now.

No one is debating that there were indigenous cultures here prior to the 1600s, your ignorance is illuminated by your ridiculous argument that ignores modern governments.

Answer 9

That's just desperate there. The illegal ones are those who were born in another country and sneaked into this country knowing it was illegal. When they steal and use someone else's identity to obtain employment and know they can't open a bank account or buy a home, they know they're here illegally. It's not about what was here in 500 BC.

Answer 10

Those are Native Americans, not all Mexicans are Native Americans. Many are of Spanish decent. So your point doesn't really make sense.

But in reality, Europeans came and violently conquered the US and Mexico.