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St Elizabeth exclaim when she saw Mary, "How is it, that the mother of my Lord she come to me?" It sounds like in the bible people believed Jesus was God. Did not Jesus say of himself, "I AM" Come on, lets read the bible people.

2007-09-05 15:23:43 · 20 answers · asked by Anonymous in Society & Culture Religion & Spirituality

20 answers

John 1:1 says that “the Word was God.” John 1:14 says that “the Word became flesh.” This clearly indicates that Jesus is God in the flesh. Acts 20:28 tells us, "...Be shepherds of the church of God, which He bought with His own blood." Who bought the church with His own blood? Jesus Christ. Acts 20:28 declares that God purchased the church with His own blood. Therefore, Jesus is God!

Thomas the disciple declared concerning Jesus, “Lord and my God” (John 20:28). Jesus does not correct him. Titus 2:13 encourages us to wait for the coming of our God and Savior - Jesus Christ (see also 2 Peter 1:1). In Hebrews 1:8, the Father declares of Jesus, "But about the Son He says, "Your throne, O God, will last for ever and ever, and righteousness will be the scepter of your kingdom."

2007-09-05 16:24:18 · answer #1 · answered by Freedom 7 · 0 1

‘Why, then,’ one may ask, ‘did Thomas exclaim when seeing the resurrected Jesus, “My Lord and my God!”?’ As already noted, Jesus is a god in the sense of being divine, but he is not the Father. Jesus had just told Mary Magdalene: “I am ascending to my Father and your Father and to my God and your God.” Remember, too, why John wrote his Gospel. Three verses after the account about Thomas, John explained that he wrote so that people “may believe that Jesus is the Christ the Son of God”, not that he is God.

There is no objection to referring to Jesus as “God,” if this is what Thomas had in mind. Such would be in harmony with Jesus’ own quotation from the Psalms in which powerful men, judges, were addressed as “gods.” (John 10:34, 35, RS; Ps. 82:1-6) Of course, Christ occupies a position far higher than such men. Because of the uniqueness of his position in relation to Jehovah, at John 1:18 (NW) Jesus is referred to as “the only-begotten god.” Isa. 9:6 also prophetically describes Jesus as “Mighty God,” but not as the Almighty God. All of this is in harmony with Jesus’ being described as “a god,” or “divine,”

Some scholars suggest that Thomas may simply have made an emotional exclamation of astonishment, spoken to Jesus but directed to God. In either case, Thomas did not think that Jesus was Almighty God, for he and all the other apostles knew that Jesus never claimed to be God but taught that Jehovah alone is “the only true God.” John 17:3.

. A few days earlier the resurrected Jesus had told Mary Magdalene to tell the disciples: “I am ascending to my Father and your Father and to my God and your God.” (John 20:17) Even though Jesus was already resurrected as a mighty spirit, Jehovah was still his God. And Jesus continued to refer to Him as such even in the last book of the Bible, after he was glorified. Revelation 1:5, 6; 3:2, 12.

Just three verses after Thomas’ exclamation, at John 20:31, the Bible further clarifies the matter by stating: “These have been written down that you may believe that Jesus is the Christ the Son of God,” not that he was Almighty God. And it meant “Son” in a literal way, as with a natural father and son, not as some mysterious part of a Trinity Godhead.

2007-09-05 23:41:59 · answer #2 · answered by BJ 7 · 0 0

Your question deals with Luke 1:43 and John 20:28.

Here is a literal translation of the phrase Lord and my Lord and my God.

Luke 1:43
kuriou G2962 Master

John 20:28
kurios G2962 Master
mou G3450 OF-ME
kai G2532 AND
ho G2532 THE
theos G2316 God
mou G3450 OF-ME

There is a huge different between "master" and "Lord" and "master of me and God of me" and 'my lord and my God". God of me is not God.

The Holy Scriptures (Old testament) was translated from Hebrew into Greek. If we were talking about God (YHWY) the translation out be Kurios Theos (Lord God).

Finally, John 8:58

prin G4250 ERE
abraam G11 ABRAHAM
genesthai TO-BE-COMING
egO G1473 I
elmi G1510 AM

Here Jesus use genesthai for Abraham and elmi for himself. The actually meaning is debatable; however, John 8:59 clearly states the reaction. Here is a literal translation of John 8:58 "Jesus said to them, Most assuredly I am saying to you, Before Abraham came into existence I AM."

2007-09-06 01:05:36 · answer #3 · answered by J. 7 · 0 0

they (Jews) were waiting for the angel of Covenant that God (Jehovah) said in Malachi 3:1 that will send, all angels are sons of God (Job 1:6 and 2:1 and 38:4-7) also all the sons of God are gods or divine according to Psalms 82:1-6. Jesus is the firstson or angel of God (Colossians 1:15-17) that is why the bible describe him as a powerful angel (Revelation 10:1)

2007-09-05 22:55:11 · answer #4 · answered by Anonymous · 0 1

“I Am”

AT JOHN 8:58 a number of translations, for instance The Jerusalem Bible, have Jesus saying: “Before Abraham ever was, I Am.” Was Jesus there teaching, as Trinitarians assert, that he was known by the title “I Am”? And, as they claim, does this mean that he was Jehovah of the Hebrew Scriptures, since the King James Version at Exodus 3:14 states: “God said unto Moses, I AM THAT I AM”?

At Exodus 3:14 (KJ) the phrase “I AM” is used as a title for God to indicate that he really existed and would do what he promised. The Pentateuch and Haftorahs, edited by Dr. J. H. Hertz, says of the phrase: “To the Israelites in bondage, the meaning would be, ‘Although He has not yet displayed His power towards you, He will do so; He is eternal and will certainly redeem you.’ Most moderns follow Rashi [a French Bible and Talmud commentator] in rendering [Exodus 3:14] ‘I will be what I will be.’”

The expression at John 8:58 is quite different from the one used at Exodus 3:14. Jesus did not use it as a name or a title but as a means of explaining his prehuman existence. Hence, note how some other Bible versions render John 8:58:

1869: “From before Abraham was, I have been.” The New Testament, by G. R. Noyes.

1935: “I existed before Abraham was born!” The Bible—An American Translation, by J. M. P. Smith and E. J. Goodspeed.

1965: “Before Abraham was born, I was already the one that I am.” Das Neue Testament, by Jörg Zink.

1981: “I was alive before Abraham was born!” The Simple English Bible.

1984: “Before Abraham came into existence, I have been.” New World Translation of the Holy Scriptures.

Thus, the real thought of the Greek used here is that God’s created “firstborn,” Jesus, had existed long before Abraham was born.—Colossians 1:15; Proverbs 8:22, 23, 30; Revelation 3:14.

Again, the context shows this to be the correct understanding. This time the Jews wanted to stone Jesus for claiming to “have seen Abraham” although, as they said, he was not yet 50 years old. (Verse 57) Jesus’ natural response was to tell the truth about his age. So he naturally told them that he “was alive before Abraham was born!”—The Simple English Bible.

2007-09-05 22:31:33 · answer #5 · answered by Tim 47 7 · 2 1

I don't really know much about what the catholic teachings about st Elizabeth are, but I Know What the Word of God (The Holy Bible) tells us.

“For by Him were all things created, that are in heaven, and that are in earth, visible and invisible, whether they be thrones, or dominions, or principalities, or powers: all things were created by Him, and for Him” (Colossians 1:16).

Before one can really know Jesus Christ as Savior or Lord, he must acknowledge Him as offended and rejected Creator, because He was our Creator first of all. This is such an important doctrine of the New Testament that it is remarkable how rarely it is emphasized in modern evangelicalism.

Creation by Jesus Christ is the doctrine with which John begins his great gospel of salvation: “In the beginning was the Word, and the Word was with God, and the Word was God. All things were made by Him; . . . and the world was made by Him, and the world knew Him not” (John 1:1,3,10). As the eternal, omnipotent Word of God, the pre-incarnate Christ spoke all things into being. Jesus Christ is the Word; and the Word is God! It is the foundational message of the Book of Hebrews: “God . . . Hath in these last days spoken unto us by His Son, whom He hath appointed heir of all things, by whom also He made the worlds” (Hebrews 1:1,2).

The apostle Paul said that he had been called specifically to preach “the unsearchable riches of Christ; And to make all men see what is the fellowship of the mystery, which from the beginning of the world hath been hid in God, who created all things by Jesus Christ” (Ephesians 3:8,9). When a person becomes a believer in Christ, receiving His very life by the new birth, he is said to be “renewed in knowledge after the image of Him that created Him” (Colossians 3:10).

In the final book of the Bible, Jesus Christ is called the “Alpha . . . the beginning . . . the Almighty” (Revelation 1:8), as well as “the beginning of the creation of God” (3:14).

But of all the Biblical passages identifying Jesus Christ as Creator, the most definitive of all is our text for today. Everything in heaven and Earth was created by Him, and for Him! “For of Him, and through Him, and to Him, are all things: to whom be glory for ever. Amen” (Romans 11:36).

2007-09-06 16:11:55 · answer #6 · answered by Evolution - of - the - gaps 4 · 0 0

Yes Jesus was God both fully man and fully God. The simplest reference I can give is John Chapter 1 verses 1 through 5. That pretty much sums it up.

2007-09-06 01:41:34 · answer #7 · answered by Brian V 5 · 0 0

Jesus also said, "Before Abraham was, I am."

The Greek for John 1:1 shows that the 'Word (Jesus) was THE God', not a god, as JW's have been deceived to believe - the Greek word is "ho", which means "the".

The Old Testament, Isaiah, prophecies the Messiah as "Wonderful Counselor, Mighty God..."

Yes, scripture shows that Jesus is God the Son. The JW's only have their misinterpreted book and circular reasoning to back up their claims. I have never met one who ever studied Greek, by the way - they claim to have knowledge of Greek translations. I've known one or two scholars, educated in Greek - they would disagree heartily with JW's alleged translations.

2007-09-05 22:35:22 · answer #8 · answered by TroothBTold 5 · 0 1

Why in the book of Acts that while Stephen was being stoned he seen a vision of the Lord standing on the right hand of the father?

2007-09-05 22:36:46 · answer #9 · answered by Tommiecat 7 · 1 0

He is God the Son. God comes in 3 persons: God the Father, God the Son, God the Holy Spirit.

Jehovah is God the Father.

2007-09-05 22:27:21 · answer #10 · answered by Mama2Mara 3 · 0 1

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