did you know that Mary mother of our Lord and God is the Immaculate Conception?

Question

Since the time of Adam, all mankind was marked with original sin on his soul, But the mother of Jesus, was not born with this sin, hmmm I wonder why? Because Jesus her most holy and divine son and not exist in the darkness of sin of the womb of a sinner, thus God saved her in advance from this sin and made her holy and full of Grace, blessed among all women, the mother of Jesus!!!

Answer 1

The doctrine of the immaculate conception is neither Biblical or necessary. Jesus was miraculously conceived inside Mary, who was a virgin at the time. That is the Biblical concept of the virgin birth. The Bible does not even hint that there was anything significant about Mary’s conception. If we examine this concept logically, Mary’s mother would have to be immaculately conceived as well. How could Mary be conceived without sin if her mother was sinful? The same would have to be said of Mary’s grandmother, great-grandmother, and so on. So, in conclusion, the immaculate conception is not a Biblical teaching. The Bible teaches the miraculous virgin conception of Jesus Christ, not the immaculate conception of Mary.

Answer 2

Hmmmm.....I wonder if you can cite a reference for that? Even in the ancient "Gospel of the birth of Mary" (which was rejected by the Council of Nicea and thus is not considered Scripture) God did not take credit for being the Father of Mary...only for making her birth possible. Mary's mother had been barren until she was visited by an angel. The same angel appeared to her father and told him that he would be the father of a girl named Mary who would grow up loving and serving the Lord, and that she would one day be the most blessed of all women.

This in no way changes the nature of Christ. The death (through sin) that Adam brought into the world was a spiritual death...and a spiritual sacrifice (carried out in the physical world) would be necessary to set things right. Original sin doesn't automatically apply through birth, it is imputed through the act by which women most commonly become pregnant. So Jesus having been born of Mary would not automatically impute original sin to Him.

Mary is not the daughter of God, on even footing with Jesus. Nothing in the Bible could be taken to even hint at such an idea. This is entirely a contrivation of the Roman Catholic Church and has been rejected by pretty much every other Christian denomination.

Answer 3

interior the Catholic church there is and replaced right into a cult of Mary. i don't understand whilst all this have been given all started, even though it replaced right into a protracted time in the past, and this veneration of Mary grew to electrify many components of Catholic prepare. Protestant theologians felt that this veneration had grown right into a sort of idolatry the place Mary replaced into worshipped very almost or sometimes as plenty or greater beneficial than Christ. They wanted to undo that, and refocus Christian worship greater narrowly on Christ. As for the doctrine that Mary replaced into sinless (the stainless theory), they recognized it as not basic. That doctrine particularly replaced right into a stumbling block for some believers. If god created Mary with out unique sin, why did not he create you that way? Why not purely make a clean variety of human beings commencing with Mary who did not decide for truthfully everybody to restoration their sinfulness because of the fact they have been for sure reliable?

Answer 4

Sorry, God had no mother.
Also, Mary of course was marked with original sin, otherwise, the whole Jesus is the truth the WAY the LIFE, has no meaning. How? Well, if it was possible to exempt Mary, from sin, without the need for Jesus to die, then it becomes obvious to anyone following your logic, that really, everyone could have been forgiven their sins outside of the sacrifice that Jesus made.
Therefore, what you are really saying, is that Jesus being executed was totally unnecessary.

And now for the scriptural rebuttal.
At Romans 3:22-24 we read that what you are claiming makes invalid this passage, " 23 For all have sinned and fall short of the glory of God, 24 and it is as a free gift that they are being declared righteous by his undeserved kindness through the release by the ransom [paid] by Christ Jesus."

It seems to be straightforwards when it says two things.
1. All have sinned and fall short. (notice it doesn't say "all have sinned EXCEPT Mary")
2. "they (referring to the 'all' from the previous verse) are being declared righteous.......by the ransom ... by Jesus"


AND, do you realize, that the doctrine of the 'Immaculate Conception after undergoing centuries of debate for and against within the different sects of the Catholic Church, was not officially adopted as a Church Doctrine until 1854.

, The Catholic Encyclopedia states: “The attempts to introduce it [the feast of the Immaculate Conception] officially provoked contradiction and theoretical discussion, bearing upon its legitimacy and its meaning, which were continued for centuries and were not definitively settled before 1854.” In that year Pope Pius IX solemnly proclaimed that the Immaculate Conception of Mary “is a doctrine revealed by God and therefore must be firmly and constantly believed by all the faithful.”

When you really look into the history of the whole 'mother of god' theology', you will find that it predates Mary or Jesus time upon the earth.
The origins of the God Mother, as mother of god belief, is easily traced all the way back to ancient Babylon. This is where the ancient man (mentioned by name in the Bible as 'Nimrod', started mother worship, afte his own mother had died. Later, when he died, he was deified by the Babylonians, who now had their Mother of god and god worship format clearly defined.

Answer 5

Do you know where that falicy came from it was invented by the catholic church in 1854 Look it up in the dictionery Mary was a sinner like all, but her son Jesus was perfect because his father was perfect
(Romans 5:12) 12 That is why, just as through one man sin entered into the world and death through sin, and thus death spread to all men because they had all sinned—.

including mary, now Mary after she died went to heaven (after the Lords return see 1 thess 4:13)

Answer 6

The Bible is clear on the fact that all have sinned (other than Jesus) and have fallen short of the glory of God. If Mary had not accepted Jesus as her saviour she would be in Hell tonight.

Answer 7

Fairy tales, just like the talking snake in Genesis. Or better yet, mythology. Did you know Hercules was the son of Zeus (God) and a human woman, and he did great and mighty works, too? Can't you believe in him, too? You think God and a woman could have a child together in the Gospels--do you doubt he could do it in Greek mythology, too? Do you limit your "omnipotent" God to the Gospels?

I think it's all fairy tales and people should grow up and deal with reality. IMO

Answer 8

Yes, I did know that. God would have wanted someone who was pure to bear the Son of God. Mary was a humble and devout person, practiced her religion and had faith in God. She was the perfect choice to bear Jesus.

Answer 9

Please tell me the biblical verses that support this.

My bible (NIV) does not have this. There is no where that Mary is stated to be "without sin", "queen of heaven", etc.

So if God didn't reveal it, what is your source?

Answer: She's not.

Answer 10

You do know that scientifically, it is impossible for a woman to have a baby without a man's seed, don't you? Also, why did Jesus keep referring to Joseph as his father?