abolished this faith to start his own religion and "rid" himself of the hebrew slaves. Isn't this "evidence" more logical than the Moses story of "plagues" to free "his" peoples ?
2007-09-05 10:50:41 · 6 answers · asked by Anonymous in Society & Culture ➔ Religion & Spirituality
The evidence is given by the "bible" itself in the name "Amen" they "transferred" over to their faith which by the way existed before the Jewish faith. My research MAY lead to the hebrews TRANSFERRING this belief over to Egyptians but right now I am at this level.....
2007-09-05 11:04:16 · update #1
i dont know?
2007-09-05 10:54:50 · answer #1 · answered by lisa13angelic 3 · 0⤊ 0⤋
What "evidence" is there to make this claim? An unsupported claim on the Internet?
The "evidence" you gave me in your direct communication (to quote you: "in the ancient hebrews USE of the word AMEN within their own holy words") is hardly evidence at all. You're playing on coincidence. The only connection possible in the Bible would be in the Pentateuch. The subsequent writings, particularly Isaiah, would be long after the Israelites had a firm idea of their own monotheistic credo, and anything Egyptian would have been long rejected. Please identify where Amen appears in the Pentateuch, so that I can look it up in its original language. But as it is, Amen fits into Hebrew linguistic structure, being formed with the Hebrew root-form for the verb "believe," i.e. אמנ [The final 'nun' rendered as a regular 'nun' because this is a root-form, not a word]. To say that Amen means "it is believed" is entirely consistent, to one who knows the language. No reaching, through coincidence, into ancient Egypt needed.
2007-09-05 10:56:29 · answer #2 · answered by engineer01 5 · 1⤊ 0⤋
Well, there were always Jews who did not follow the true God. You'll remember that there was a problem with the Golden Calf and there were problems with people carrying little alter gods along with them during the Exodus. Later there were Jews who worshipped the pagan gods in the Promised Land and this caused God to turn away from them and eventually have them taken away by the Babylonians.
But as a people, the Jews followed Yahweh, from Abraham onward.
2007-09-05 10:57:01 · answer #3 · answered by William D 5 · 0⤊ 0⤋
No it is not! The Bible is the word of GOD! I Believe It! The bible is not just a book with a lot of words. I wish you would just check it out, because it has prophecies that actually came true and are still coming true. So if they are true, why can't the Moses story be true? Hey you might even find out that God is real and Jesus was the Messiah!
2007-09-05 10:57:42 · answer #4 · answered by emison21754 3 · 0⤊ 0⤋
Sure it is. Unfortunately, what seems more logical isn't necessarily true.
2007-09-05 10:55:24 · answer #5 · answered by Rossonero NorCal SFECU 7 · 0⤊ 0⤋
no it isnt...why do ppl try so hard to run from the ALMIGHTY?? He wont bite
2007-09-05 10:53:51 · answer #6 · answered by Anonymous · 0⤊ 0⤋