John 1:1 "The Word". Why are so many misled on this scripture?

Question

"In the beginning was the Word, and the Word was with God, and the Word was God".
The KEY word here is the "WORD". The word does not literally mean Jesus IS God. Jehovah God wanted the people to experience and to see that they may believe for themselves that He is real and all what He is, IS REAL. God sent Jesus as His messenger to make it known to the world that we all should follow His Commandments and live in faith, hope, & love. God wanted to teach us and so sent His perfect example to the world that we may learn from Him. Jesus said, "He had not come on his own, but his Father that sent him." I think John used "The Word" because that is what Jesus was, the Word (teachings) spoken in REAL LIFE FORM. All what Jesus spoke and taught came to be directly from God so it can be truthfully said the Word is God made manifest in Jesus. Jehovah God gave Jesus all His teachings and words, than sent His only begotten Son to reveal it to us. What do you say about "The Word"?
My thoughts.

This is a question and open forum of Jesus. With respect the answerer's should take that in consideration. Thank you for those that are polite and want to share their knowledge. The other's, well you have time to rephrase your answer. I will get back to continue later.

Dear Unsilenced Lamb, the answer is yes. I am curious to know why there is so much *yes, Jesus is God* and *no, Jesus is not God*. To clear things up, I was thinking about this for a time now; funny thing I am starting to lose quality sleep! It's like I can't stop thinking about the Holy Bible and all that is Holy attached to it. Honetly, last night I had just about 5 hours of sleep.
Let me explain the best I know how (if someone out there knows what I mean, maybe you can explain it better). I am curious as why the Holy Spirit led John to write "The Word" referring to Jesus. I mean that is the opening scripture of John's book! When I think of The Word, I think of something that is spoken, being said. Jehovah God's word's came to be alive so that all may believe and have hope. If God did not send His Son for mankind there would be no hope, no Holy Bible. Because John used "The Word" I think he meant the teaching's IS God. My thoughts.

Answer 1

Several bibles translate John 1:1 in a manner compatible with the phrase "the Word was a god". The bible plainly teaches that Jesus is a god (John 1:1; Isaiah 9:6; John 1:18). This biblical concept does not trouble any Christian, whether he be trinitarian or nontrinitarian. Yet, for centuries, trinitarians have tended to reject any alternate translation of John 1:1.

Trinitarians must recognize that it was three or four hundred years after Christ's impalement that a minority of self-described "Christians" decided that Jesus was the only god, God Almighty (Jehovah). By the time the King James Version translated John 1:1 into English as "the Word was God", the year was 1611. How interesting it would be to see a translation from Greek (which contained no indefinite article "a") into English (with its indefinite articles "a", "an") performed by early Christians, perhaps the children or grandchildren of those who walked with the apostles!

We do have such a translation, but into the Coptic language, which uses indefinite articles as English does. How do the Coptic manuscripts word John 1:1?

"...and the Word was a God."
http://copticjohn.com/
http://jehovah.to/exe/translation/coptic.pdf
http://depts.washington.edu/cartah/text_archive/coptic/coptjohn.shtml


The bible makes perfect sense when it is being read honestly. John 1:1 is perfectly harmonious with the rest of the bible, which teaches plainly that Jesus Christ the Son is a distinct person from Jehovah God the Father. The Scriptures teach that the Almighty created Jesus as His firstborn son.

(Colossians 1:15) the firstborn of all creation

(Mark 10:18) Jesus said to him: 'Why do you call me good? Nobody is good, except one, God.

(Revelation 3:14) the Amen says, the faithful and true witness, the beginning of the creation by God

(Philippians 2:5-6) Christ Jesus, who, although he was existing in God's form, gave no consideration to a seizure, namely, that he should be equal to God

(John 8:42) Neither have I come of my own initiative at all, but that One sent me forth

(John 12:49) I have not spoken out of my own impulse, but the Father himself who sent me has given me a commandment as to what to tell and what to speak

(John 14:28) I am going my way to the Father, because the Father is greater than I am

(1 Corinthians 15:28) But when all things will have been subjected to him, then the Son himself will also subject himself to the One who subjected all things to him

(Matthew 20:23) this sitting down at my right hand and at my left is not mine to give, but it belongs to those for whom it has been prepared by my Father

(1 Corinthians 11:3) I want you to know that the head of every man is the Christ; ...in turn the head of the Christ is God

(John 20:17) I am ascending to my Father and your Father and to my God and your God.

(Deuteronomy 6:4) Jehovah our God is one Jehovah

(1 Corinthians 8:4-6) There is no God but one. For even though there are those who are called "gods," whether in heaven or on earth, just as there are many "gods" and many "lords," there is actually to us one God the Father, out of whom all things are, and we for him

Thanks again for an opportunity to share what the bible actually says about the distinct persons of Jesus Christ the Son and Jehovah God the Father!

Learn more!
http://watchtower.org/e/ti/index.htm?article=article_05.htm
http://watchtower.org/e/20050422/
http://watchtower.org/e/20020515/
http://watchtower.org/e/rq/index.htm?article=article_03.htm
http://watchtower.org/e/lmn/index.htm?article=article_04.htm
http://watchtower.org/e/pr/index.htm?article=article_04.htm


Incidentally, the bible quite explicitly calls Jesus a "god"; human judges, angels, and even Satan are also referred to as "gods" in the bible (see below). Yet Jehovah is "the one true God" in the sense that He has no rival among any of these. Jesus the Son is clearly no rival to God the Father!

(Psalm 86:8,10) There is none like you among the gods, O Jehovah... You are God, you alone.

(1 Corinthians 8:4-6) There is no God but one. For even though there are those who are called "gods," whether in heaven or on earth, just as there are many "gods" and many "lords," there is actually to us one God the Father, out of whom all things are, and we for him

(Exodus 22:20) One who sacrifices to any gods but Jehovah alone is to be devoted to destruction.


The bible speaks of honoring Christ Jesus and doing obeisance to him, but only Jehovah the Father merits worshipful "exclusive devotion".

(Exodus 20:2,5) I am Jehovah your God... I Jehovah your God am a God exacting exclusive devotion

(Philippians 2:5,6) Christ Jesus, who, although he was existing in God’s form, gave no consideration to a seizure, namely, that he should be equal to God



The bible does not use the term "god" only in reference to Almighty Jehovah.

(1 Corinthians 8:5) there are those who are called “gods,” whether in heaven or on earth

Jesus as "a god": (John 1:1; Isaiah 9:6; John 1:18)
Angels as 'gods': (Psalm 82:1)
Satan as 'a god': (2 Corinthians 4:4)

Human judges as "gods": (Psalm 82:6-8) “I myself have said, ‘You are gods, And all of you are sons of the Most High. Surely you will die just as men do... Do rise up, O God, do judge the earth

Answer 2

To me, the Word would be the epitome of communication. Before the creation of his son, God was alone, so after he created another being communication became necessary. Maybe that is why he is referred to as the "word."

All this argument about the lack of an "a" in front of the second word "god" is a mute point, because the next verse clarifies the meaning, that he (the word) was with God in the beginning.

Keep in mind that Isa 55:8 -9 brings out that our thoughts are not God's thoughts and can never be, so we can only know so much about the reasoning of God.

Answer 3

At John 17:3, did Jesus say that the Father, Son, and the holy spirit is the true God? Not even close. Instead, he called the Father the only true God. What Jesus said here is in harmony with 1 Cor. 8:6, where it says: "There is actually to us one God the Father, out of whom all things are, and we for him." Eph. 5:6 says: "One God and Father of all [persons], who is over all and through all and in all." All three of these verses identify the Father as God, NOT the Son. One God and Father. NO trinity. The Catholic Church invented the trinity over 300 years AFTER the death of Christ. As A Catholic Dictionary notes: “The third Person was asserted at a Council of Alexandria in 362 . . . and finally by the Council of Constantinople of 381.” Those who defend the trinity with 1 John 5:7 have not been informed by their clergymen that the phrase "For there are three witness bearers” this added passage reads, “in heaven, the Father, the Word and the holy spirit; and these three are one" is a spurious addition to the Bible. That phrase does NOT appear in most modern Bibles, including the Catholic Jeusalem Bible and the New American Bible.

Answer 4

In many Bibles, the first part of Jn 1:1 says, "In the beginning was the Word,"
The word "beginning" as used in Jn 1:1 indicates that the Word began at this time. Jehovah God, the Father alone has always existed. Therefore, the word "beginning" cannot be applied to Him, but only to His creations.

The second part of Jn 1:1 says,"...and the Word was with God,"

The word "with" as is used in Jn 1:1 indicates that the Word was near or by God at this time. God is phrased as A SEPERATE PERSON from the Word in Jn 1:1.

The third part of Jn 1:1 says, "...and the Word was God."

In New Testament Greek, the same word is used for "God" and "a god" which is theos (qeoV). Theos is the Greek word used in the third part of Jn 1:1. So how does one know if "God" or "a god" was meant here?

In New Testament Greek, the language does have a definite article ("the"), but IT DOES NOT HAVE an indefinite article ("a" or an"). At John 1:1, there are two occurrences of theos. The first one has the definite article ("the") but the second one in the third part of Jn 1:1 (the one in question) does not.

The first part of Jn 1:1 indicates that the Word began at this time. And if the third part of Jn 1:1 were interpreted to mean "the" God, then this would contradict the preceding clause of the second part which says that the Word was with God. Yet, the use of "God" for theos (qeoV) in John 1:1c is purposely mistranslated in most Trinitarian-produced Bibles as "God."

Answer 5

Bc until a accurate & true translation was prepared many were mislead & deceived by the wordage used.
1) in the beginning was the word--
the beginning of earth's creation.
2) the word was with God--
Jesus aka Micheal was "with God."
3) and the word was a god--
Jesus is a god...NOT the Almighty God, YHWH.
Only YHWH "God" is capitalized;
He has No beginning!
Jesus as a god is NOT capitalized;
He is the only-begotten god.

I pray u all discern the difference,
instead of being deceived by Satan
and mislead by man.

That is the answer.

thk u little lamb,
Bambi Abi'JAH

EDIT:
this shows that "the word" has a beginning,
the Almighty does Not have a beginning.
"The word" was with God, the Word is Not the Almighty.
How could He be with Himself, as a seperate entity..?...
"The word" is a god; definately seperate from the Almighty God.
So, then u must ask the Q;
where / how did this come about; as u have.
I gave the answer.

Answer 6

People enjoy having their ears tickled it seems. The hard fact of the matter is the triune dogma is nothing more than a man-made tradition that dates back to ancient Babylon, then traced to ancient Egypt all the way to Rome and the Pagan Emperor Constantine. Since the apostasy foretold had already taken place in the Christian congregation the rest of this God dis-honoring doctrine found a foot hold. As the pagan Pontifex Maximus—and therefore the religious head of the Roman Empire—Constantine tried to win over the bishops of the apostate church. He offered them positions of power, prominence, and wealth as officers of the Roman State religion. The Catholic Encyclopedia admits: “Some bishops, blinded by the splendour of the court, even went so far as to laud the emperor as an angel of God, as a sacred being, and to prophesy that he would, like the Son of God, reign in heaven.”

As apostate Christianity came into favor with the political government, it became more and more a part of this world, of this secular system, and drifted away from the teachings of Jesus Christ. (John 15:19; 17:14, 16; Revelation 17:1, 2) As a result, there was a fusion of “Christianity” with false doctrines and practices—the Trinity, immortality of the soul, hellfire, purgatory, prayers for the dead, use of rosaries, icons, images, and the like.—Compare 2 Corinthians 6:14-18.

From Constantine, the church also inherited the tendency to be authoritarian. Scholars Henderson and Buck say: “The simplicity of the Gospel was corrupted, pompous rites and ceremonies were introduced, worldly honours and emoluments were conferred on the teachers of Christianity, and the Kingdom of Christ in good measure converted into a kingdom of this world.”

What role did the unbaptized Emperor Constantine play at the Council of Nicaea? The Encyclopædia Britannica states: “Constantine himself presided, actively guiding the discussions . . . Overawed by the emperor, the bishops, with two exceptions only, signed the creed, many of them much against their inclination.”

After two months of furious religious debate, this pagan politician intervened and decided in favor of those who said that Jesus was God. But why? “Constantine had basically no understanding whatsoever of the questions that were being asked in Greek theology,” says A Short History of Christian Doctrine. What he did understand was that religious division was a threat to his empire, and he was determined to solidify his empire.

Historical facts reveal the truth behind the “greatness” of Constantine. Instead of being founded by Jesus Christ, the Head of the true Christian congregation, Christendom is partly the result of the political expediency and the crafty maneuvers of a pagan emperor. Very aptly, historian Paul Johnson asks: “Did the empire surrender to Christianity, or did Christianity prostitute itself to the empire?” The answer to that is quite clear.

This is where you're 'trinity' doctrine came from. Plain facts.

Answer 7

John tells us where to start to truthfully understand what he is stating.

"In the Beginning"

This directly takes us to the very first place these words are used:
Genesis 1:1-3
1
In the beginning God created the heaven and the earth.

2
And the earth was without form, and void; and darkness was upon the face of the deep. And the Spirit of God moved upon the face of the waters.

3
And God said, Let there be light: and there was light.
_____________

God words were??
-
Let there be light.
-
Jesus is the light of the World.
______________

Now look at verse 7 of John chapter 1
-
we are on the right track - right?
______________

Look at verses nine and ten of John Chapter 1

9
That was the true Light, which lighteth every man that cometh into the world.
10
He was in the world, and the world was made by him, and the world knew him not.
______________

Who made the world? (See Genesis Chapter 1)
-
God.
______________

But John Chapter 1 says "The Light" (the Word/Jesus) made the world.
_______________

Who gives life?
Job 33:4
The Spirit of God hath made me, and the breath of the Almighty hath given me life.
________________

Who forms life in the womb?
Isaiah 44:24
Thus saith the LORD, thy redeemer, and he that formed thee from the womb, I am the LORD that maketh all things; that stretcheth forth the heavens alone; that spreadeth abroad the earth by myself;
______________

Who makes all things alone by HisSelf?
Isaiah 44:24
Thus saith the LORD, thy redeemer, and he that formed thee from the womb, I am the LORD that maketh all things; that stretcheth forth the heavens alone; that spreadeth abroad the earth by myself;
______________

Are not all of these: Genesis 1 - Spirit of God (Holy Spirit), The Word of God (Jesus is the Word) and He who is God Almighty (Exodus 3:14) all one in fact?

______________

See verse 11 and pray

Isaiah 43:
7
Even every one that is called by my name: for I have created him for my glory, I have formed him; yea, I have made him.
8
Bring forth the blind people that have eyes, and the deaf that have ears.
9
Let all the nations be gathered together, and let the people be assembled: who among them can declare this, and shew us former things? let them bring forth their witnesses, that they may be justified: or let them hear, and say, It is truth.
10
Ye are my witnesses, saith the LORD, and my servant whom I have chosen: that ye may know and believe me, and understand that I am he: before me there was no God formed, neither shall there be after me.
11
I, even I, am the LORD; and beside me there is no saviour.

P.S.
Jesus Christ is the WAY of salvation, the path to the kingdom of God.

Jesus Christ is the TRUTH of God’s Word, the living Word.

Jesus Christ is the LIFE eternal, the tree of life.

Jesus is the Saviour

Answer 8

Some fault the accuracy of New World Translation Bible for its rendering of John 1:1.

But as for its accuracy in general, the New World Translation has been found to be "ONE OF THE MOST ACCURATE ENGLISH TRANSLATIONS OF THE NEW TESTAMENT CURRENTLY AVAILABLE" and is "THE MOST ACCURATE OF THE [8 MAJOR] TRANSLATIONS COMPARED."—Truth in Translation: Accuracy and Bias in English Translations of the New Testament by Jason BeDuhn, associate professor of religious studies at Northern Arizona University, in Flagstaff, Arizona

The NWT is NOT the only Bible that translated John 1:1 as "a god". Take a look at the following NON JW translations:


(1) The New Testament in an Improved Version (Unitarian) says: "the Word was with God, and the Word was A god."

(2) The Emphatic Diaglott by Benjamin Wilson (Christadelphian?) says in the interlinear section: "A god was the Word."

(3) The Four Gospels - A New Translation by Prof. Charles C. Torrey says: "the Word was with God, and the Word was god."

(4) Das Evangelium nach Johannes by Siegfried Shultz says: "and A god (or, of a divine kind) was the Word."

(5) Das Evangelium nach Johannes by Johannes Schneider says: "and godlike sort was the Logos [Word]."

(6) Das Evangelium nach Johannes by Jurgen Becker says: "and A god was the Logos."

In reality, there is no such teaching of a triune God in the Bible. Trinitarins only pick and choose several scriptures (like John 1:1) that is attempted to be interpreted as such.

http://www.watchtower.org/library/ti/index.htm

Answer 9

IN the beginning there was no existence of a world and the word of God with its power spoke into existence the world and the making of mankind started with Adam. Indeed the word was God. We as humans live by the word of God. The bible says man should not live by bread alone buy by every word that preceeded out of the mouth of God. So things are fulfilled by the word of God and I could go on and on. God spoke and gave the word and that settles that account.

Answer 10

The word is God and the word was with God.God sent Jesus into the world to kill the beliefs of the devil in man. He was a final sacrifice for sin. Without the shedding of blood there was no atonement. Jesus took back what was stolen from us at the time of Eden. Are relationship with God. He demonstrated the work of the Holy spirit.God's spirit in us. It directs and teaches us the thoughts and the will of God. Jesus knew the thoughts of every man and the spirit give him that ability and it will also gives us discernment. Jesus went alone by himself to pray driven by the spirit to commune with God. The spirit of God came down on his head as a dove. So he was baptized. In the book of John Jesus breathed on the disciples and said receive the spirit of God. The word of God is God breathed says in the word of God. Everytime one turns a page it is breathed into them. God says love me. So we love him when we read his word and have faith. Hebrews 2.

Answer 11

John borrowed the use of the term "Word" from Gen 1:1, where the same phrase is used. John used the phrase in an absolute sense to refer to the beginning of the time-space-material world.. The verb 'was' highlights the eternal pre-existence of the Word,i.e.,Jesus Christ. The 2nd person of the trinity always existed. (v8:58) "The Word" is also from Greek philosophy, in which the term signifies the rational principle of 'divine reason, mind, or even wisdom'. (Prov.8:27)"Word" was a bridge-word to reach not only Jews but also the unsaved Greeks.

"The Word was with God" The 2nd person of the Trinity was in intimate fellowship with God throughout all eternity. Yet the Word enjoyed splendors of Heaven& eternity with th eFather (Is 6:1-13, 12:41, 17:5), He willingly gave it up, taking the form of man, and became subject to the death of the cross.(Phil 2:6-8) Jesus the Messiah was fully God(Col.2:9) He did not cease to be God but took on a genuine human nature/body and voluntarity refrained from, the independent exercise of the attributes of deity.

Salvation to have eternal life is accepting Jesus Christ as your Lord and Savior. John 3:14-17