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Where in the bible does it ban homosexualities.

2007-09-04 14:27:43 · 20 answers · asked by tashnatjuly69 1 in Society & Culture Religion & Spirituality

20 answers

Steve gave some good examples from the New Testament. Please also consider these verses from the law of Moses (the Old Testament).

"If a man lies with a male as he lies with a woman, both of them have committed an abomination..." (Leviticus 20:13)

"You shall not lie with a male as with a woman. It is an abomination." (Leviticus 18:22)

I must also add to 1 Corinthians 6:9-10 that has been correctly quoted by others, verse 11 goes on to say, "And such WERE some of you; but you were washed, but you were santified, but you were justified in the name of the Lord Jesus Christ, and in the Spirit of our God."

The Bible clearly teaches that practicing homosexual behavior is sinful, but a homosexual can repent and be forgiven of this sin, and other sins that may be in his life.

2007-09-04 15:11:02 · answer #1 · answered by JoeBama 7 · 0 0

Well you have read the fundamentalists? I would be happy as hetorsexual, just to work with homosexual coming to hear about Christ in church.

God does the work through the holy spirit not you, argueing is not going to win souls, what do you fear by asking such a question? Love? Responsibility? Respect? Decency? Dignity? Christians do not have a monopoly on these charactoristics the way healing belongs only to some, or even the others have food?

Try the fact, your body is a temple, just dont defile it?

If you have a testimonial of a friend who realized they had any psychological abnormality, tell it as a story lovingly and compassionately to your homosexual friend, because Christ died for those who would hate him, what do we achieve argueing, whom have you won to Christ today? whom have you helped today? What did you achieve? Did you give God thanks?

Just read the bible more regularly and turn up to a caring, compassionate church accepting you as you are? Christ married a prostitue, who are you to condemn the homosexual, try the log in your eye quote, I am ashamed at you question as a Christian. No one mentioned 1 Corinthians 6 either?

2007-09-04 14:44:47 · answer #2 · answered by Anonymous · 0 0

Forgive me, this is an addendum to your question that I feel compelled to add:
There are obviously plenty of quotes condemning homosexuality (above). But don't think all homosexuals are condemned to suffer eternal fire. It is not true.
Scripture also says (when Jesus is talking about marriage and adultery):
"his disciples said to him, "if that is the case between man and wife, it is better not to marry."
He said "Not everyone can accept this teaching, only those to whom it is given to do so. Some men are incapable of sexual activity from birth; some have been deliberately made so ("made so": here Jesus is talking about enuchs, which were common in those days); and some there are who have freely renounced sex for the sake of God's reign. Let him accept this teaching who can".
Therefore, homosexuals who renounce sexual activity for the sake of God's reign will not be condemned.
But as Jesus states, "let him accept this teaching who can".
Not everyone can accept the teaching...why? because it is an outrageously difficult teaching for any human to accept. "who can" implies that it is not impossible to accept the teaching.

Again, so difficult that any homosexual (or heterosexual) who takes and persists on the celibate path for the sake of God will be with Him in heaven.

2007-09-04 15:27:43 · answer #3 · answered by Autumn 5 · 0 0

merely an element be conscious, if this enables you: all the supposedly anti-gay passages of the Bible come from the previous testomony, or are in step with Jewish regulation. in the hot testomony there is not any quote attributed directly to Jesus on the subject of homosexuality or abortion. Jesus, it form of feels, did no longer evaluate the two count number to be worth of point out, ether professional or anti. provided that many Christians have faith the training of Jesus supersede the previous Jewish regulations, his reluctance to remark on the subject leaves Christians in a predicament -- Christians evaluate Christ's emphasis on peace and love overturns numerous the vengeful and violent decrees of the previous testomony, so does this additionally enlarge to homosexuals? finally the Bible does not say, so the believer is left to return to a determination if the previous (pre-Christ) or New (submit-Christ) testomony applies. because of the fact of this diverse Christians could have diverse perspectives.

2016-12-12 18:26:48 · answer #4 · answered by ? 4 · 0 0

The Bible consistently tells us that homosexual activity is a sin (Genesis 19:1-13; Leviticus 18:22; Romans 1:26-27; 1 Corinthians 6:9). Romans 1:26-27 teaches specifically that homosexuality is a result of denying and disobeying God. When a person continues in sin and disbelief, the Bible tells us that God “gives them over” to even more wicked and depraved sin in order to show them the futility and hopelessness of life apart from God. 1 Corinthians 6:9 proclaims that homosexual “offenders” will not inherit the kingdom of God.

2007-09-04 14:32:02 · answer #5 · answered by Freedom 7 · 0 3

So you know, the word HOMOSEXUAL, as listed in 1Cor.6 (listed previously) is ARSENOKOITES. Some will say that only means abuser, but broken down..
arseno = man or male
koites = chambering, ext., cohabitation - even has a reference to male sperm - so, sex, in a word. Also reminds me of coitus (latin)

If it were in latin, it could be homo-coitus or homosexual.

It is a sin. But, for the unsaved, sin is a byproduct or a manifestation of a life without God. For the saved, the Church, such sin is absolutely unacceptable - these passages are written to the Church. To be part of God's Kingdom, we are not to willingly engage in sinful lifestyle - it's one way or the other - in the Kingdom, or out.

2007-09-04 14:39:41 · answer #6 · answered by TroothBTold 5 · 0 0

Don't listen to the christians,if you stump your toe they'll come up with some reason in the bible why you'll go to hell .By the way theres nothing wrong with homosexuality..The important issue is being happy..

2007-09-04 14:38:29 · answer #7 · answered by tracy s 2 · 0 0

Sodom was destroyed because of the way it received strangers, and for neglecting orphans and widow. This is SELF referencing in the Bible (in several other places in the OT they reference what Sodom did).

The idea that it was for sexual reasons was something that became emphasized during a conservative kick in the middle ages.
Male on male sex was condemned as an act of post-war rape (usually done to an enemy after defeating them).

2007-09-04 14:36:09 · answer #8 · answered by Anonymous · 1 0

Check Leviticus. It says that for mankind to lay with mankind as with womankind is an abomination... and then it calls for the execution of gays. Right after that, it calls shellfish an "abomination." Pretty insane, huh? Especially since almost nobody born in a democratic society today would follow that rule, even though the Puritans did.

And since woman is barely referenced save for derogatory references to the sexual behavior of prostitutes with men, I'll assume that lesbianism is very fair game. :-)

2007-09-04 14:34:36 · answer #9 · answered by Dalarus 7 · 1 0

"Do you not know that the wicked will not inherit the kingdom of God? Do not be deceived: Neither the sexually immoral nor idolaters nor adulterers nor male prostitutes nor homosexual offenders nor thieves nor the greedy nor drunkards nor slanderers nor swindlers will inherit the kingdom of God." 1Cor 6:9,10

"God gave them over in the sinful desires of their hearts to sexual impurity for the degrading of their bodies with one another. They exchanged the truth of God for a lie, and worshiped and served created things rather than the Creator— who is forever praised. Amen. Because of this, God gave them over to shameful lusts. Even their women exchanged natural relations for unnatural ones. In the same way the men also abandoned natural relations with women and were inflamed with lust for one another. Men committed indecent acts with other men, and received in themselves the due penalty for their perversion. Furthermore, since they did not think it worthwhile to retain the knowledge of God, he gave them over to a depraved mind, to do what ought not to be done." Rom 1:24-28

Jude 1:7 "In a similar way, Sodom and Gomorrah and the surrounding towns gave themselves up to sexual immorality and perversion. They serve as an example of those who suffer the punishment of eternal fire."

Heb 13:4 "Marriage should be honored by all, and the marriage bed kept pure, for God will judge the adulterer and all the sexually immoral."

Furthermore Jesus said concerning marriage "at the beginning of creation God ‘made them male and female.’" of which he took as a precedent for marriage

2007-09-04 15:02:53 · answer #10 · answered by Steve Amato 6 · 0 0

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