English Deutsch Français Italiano Español Português 繁體中文 Bahasa Indonesia Tiếng Việt ภาษาไทย
All categories

10 answers

WOW Jesus says to paul pray for those in hell? give scripture genius, and if there is I am sure it doesn't mean that moron. But anyway no there is no such biblical scripture saying we should baptize the dead. When there dead they are either in heaven or hell so what good would the baptism do you? exactly, unless they are believing in purgatory too which wouldn't surprise me.

2007-09-04 01:33:00 · answer #1 · answered by Anonymous · 1 3

Jesus said, "HE that believes and is baptized shall be saved." Notice "He... shall be saved", NOT "He is baptized and someone else shall be saved!"


We will each be judged based on what we have done. (2 Corinthians 5:10)

Notice Ezekiel 18:20, "The soul that sinneth, it shall die. The son shall not bear the iniquity of the father, neither shall the father bear the iniquity of the son: the righteousness of the righteous shall be upon him, and the wickedness of the wicked shall be upon him."

Some Mormons will point to 1 Corinthians 15:29, but this verse simply uses a practice someone else was doing as an example to make a point. There is no command here, nor is there anything to show why they were being baptized for the dead, or what that involved. In fact, it is not the Christians Paul was speaking to that were doing this, but someone else.

We can know that this is not the baptism of the great commission (Mark 16:16) and it is not for the remission of sins for someone else because salvation deals with our own relationship with God, not someone else's. Baptism in the New Testament is "for the remission of your sins"! (Acts 2:38)

2007-09-04 14:25:22 · answer #2 · answered by JoeBama 7 · 1 0

1 Peter 3:17 For it is better, if the will of God be so, that ye suffer for well doing, than for evil doing.
18 For Christ also hath once suffered for sins, the just for the unjust, that he might bring us to God, being put to death in the flesh, but quickened by the dSpirit:
19 By which also he went and preached unto the spirits in prison;
20 Which sometime were disobedient, when once the longsuffering of God waited in the days of Noah, while the ark was a preparing, wherein few, that is, eight souls were saved by water.

Jesus opened the teaching of the Gospel to those who died without it. If baptism is a requirement of salvation, then it was done by the teaching of Paul in Corinthians, and it is restored to the world today. If not then the mission of the Savior to those spirits would be in vain.

2007-09-04 10:43:18 · answer #3 · answered by Isolde 7 · 3 0

NO, bcoz u can only baptise a person who is alive or else who & how will u baptise them? Baptism is accepting the belief that u have learned. how can a dead person accept, believe and learn? And also it's not in the bible so why should I believe it in the first place? what i know proxy is someone will attend an event in ur place but nothing to do with dead people!

2007-09-04 08:37:00 · answer #4 · answered by Kath 3 · 0 1

The future eternal life of a person is set at the time of death, no praying by their family or friends, or any other rite, like baptism, will change that.

2007-09-04 09:09:35 · answer #5 · answered by Darth Eugene Vader 7 · 1 2

No but it is a nice gesture, actually one of the gnostic gospe: Jesus says to paul that if people in Heaven pray for those in hell they can be allowed into heaven, so it is a good thing.

2007-09-04 08:29:30 · answer #6 · answered by Anonymous · 2 0

“I saw a pillar of light exactly over my head, above the brightness of the sun, which descended gradually until it fell upon me. . . . When the light rested upon me I saw two Personages, whose brightness and glory defy all description, standing above me in the air. One of them spake unto me, calling me by name and said, pointing to the other—This is My Beloved Son. Hear Him!” ( Joseph Smith—History 1:16–17).

read for your self here ---> http://www.mormon.org/mormonorg/eng/basic-beliefs/the-restoration-of-truth/the-restoration-of-the-gospel

2007-09-04 22:59:02 · answer #7 · answered by Anonymous · 0 0

baptism is for the living

2007-09-04 08:30:50 · answer #8 · answered by Anonymous · 2 1

I'm not a Mormon so it doesn't have to make sense to me.

If it works for them.....that's all that matters.

2007-09-04 08:29:20 · answer #9 · answered by daljack -a girl 7 · 2 0

The faithful apostles of Jesus Christ were baptized in water by John’s baptism. (Joh 1:35-37; 4:1) But they had not yet been baptized with holy spirit when Jesus pointed out that they were also to be baptized in a symbolic baptism like his, a baptism into death. (Mr 10:39) So baptism into his death is something apart from water baptism. Paul expressed himself in his letter to the Christian congregation at Rome, saying: “Do you not know that all of us who were baptized into Christ Jesus were baptized into his death?”—Ro 6:3.

The passage at 1 Corinthians 15:29 is variously rendered by translators: “What shall they do which are baptized for the dead?” (KJ); “on behalf of their dead?” (AT); “on behalf of the dead?” (NE); “for the purpose of being dead ones?” (NW)

Many different interpretations have been offered for this verse. The most common interpretation is that Paul was referring to the custom of vicarious baptism in water, that is, baptizing living persons in behalf of dead ones in a substitutionary way in order to benefit the dead. The existence of such a practice in Paul’s day cannot be proved, nor would it be in accord with those scriptures that clearly state that “disciples,” those who themselves ‘embraced the word heartily,’ those who personally “believed,” were the ones that got baptized.—Mt 28:19; Ac 2:41; 8:12.

A Greek-English Lexicon, by Liddell and Scott, includes “for,” “on behalf of,” and “for the sake of” among its definitions of the Greek preposition hy‧per′, which is used with the genitive case in 1 Corinthians 15:29. (Revised by H. Jones, Oxford, 1968, p. 1857) In some settings the expression “for the sake of” is equivalent to “for the purpose of.” Already in 1728 Jacob Elsner noted cases from various Greek writers where hy‧per′ with the genitive has final meaning, that is, a meaning expressive of purpose, and he showed that in 1 Corinthians 15:29 this construction has such meaning. (Observationes Sacrae in Novi Foederis Libros, Utrecht, Vol. II, pp. 127-131) Consistent with this, in this verse the New World Translation renders hy‧per′ as meaning “for the purpose of.”

Where an expression can grammatically be translated in more than one way, the correct rendering is one that agrees with the context. In the context, 1 Corinthians 15:3, 4 shows that what is principally under discussion is belief in the death and resurrection of Jesus Christ. The following verses then present evidence of the soundness of that belief (vss 5-11); they discuss the serious implications of denying belief in the resurrection (vss 12-19), the fact that the resurrection of Christ gives assurance that others will be raised from the dead (vss 20-23), and how all of this works toward the unification of all intelligent creation with God (vss 24-28). Verse 29 obviously is an integral part of this discussion. But whose resurrection is at issue in verse 29? Is it the resurrection of the ones whose baptism is referred to there? Or is it that of someone who died before that baptism took place? What do the following verses indicate? Verses 30 to 34 clearly show that the future life prospects of living Christians are there being discussed, and verses 35 to 58 state that those were faithful Christians who had the hope of heavenly life.

That agrees with Romans 6:3, which says: “Do you not know that all of us who were baptized into Christ Jesus were baptized into his death?” As this scripture makes plain, that is not a baptism that a Christian undergoes on behalf of someone already dead but is, instead, something that affects the person’s own future.

In what sense, then, were those Christians “baptized for the purpose of being dead ones,” or “baptized into his death”? They were immersed into a course of life that was to lead them as integrity-keepers to death, as was the case with Christ, and with the hope of a resurrection like his to immortal spirit life. (Ro 6:4, 5; Php 3:10, 11) This was not a baptism that was accomplished quickly, as water immersion is. More than three years after his immersion in water, Jesus spoke of a baptism that was not yet completed in his own case and that was yet future for his disciples. (Mr 10:35-40) Since this baptism leads to resurrection to heavenly life, it must begin with the operation of God’s spirit on the person in such a way as to engender that hope, and it must end, not at death, but with realization of the prospect of immortal spirit life by means of the resurrection.—2Co 1:21, 22; 1Co 6:14.

A Person’s Place in God’s Purpose. It should be noted that the one being baptized in water enters a special relationship as Jehovah’s servant, to do His will. The individual does not determine what the will of God is for him, but it is God who makes the decision as to the use of the individual and the placing of such one in the framework of His purposes. For example, in times past, the entire nation of Israel was in special relationship with God; they were Jehovah’s property. (Ex 19:5) But only the tribe of Levi was selected to perform the services at the sanctuary, and out of this tribe only Aaron’s family constituted the priesthood. (Nu 1:48-51; Ex 28:1; 40:13-15) The kingship came to be established exclusively in the line of David’s family by Jehovah God.—2Sa 7:15, 16.

Likewise those who undergo Christian baptism become God’s property, his slaves, to employ as he sees fit. (1Co 6:20) An example of God’s direction of such matters is found in Revelation, where reference is made to a definite number of persons finally “sealed,” namely, 144,000. (Re 7:4-8) Even before such final approval, God’s holy spirit serves as a seal that gives those sealed a token in advance of their inheritance, a heavenly one. (Eph 1:13, 14; 2Co 5:1-5) He also told these having such a hope: “God has set the members in the body [of Christ], each one of them, just as he pleased.”—1Co 12:18, 27.

Jesus called attention to another group when he said: “I have other sheep, which are not of this fold; those also I must bring, and they will listen to my voice, and they will become one flock, one shepherd.” (Joh 10:16) These are not of the “little flock” (Lu 12:32), but they too must approach Jehovah through Jesus Christ and be baptized in water.

The vision given to the apostle John, as recorded in Revelation, harmonizes with this when, after showing John the 144,000 “sealed” ones, it turns his eyes to “a great crowd, which no man was able to number.” These are shown as having “washed their robes and made them white in the blood of the Lamb,” indicating faith in the ransom sacrifice of Jesus Christ the Lamb of God. (Re 7:9, 14) They are therefore given favorable recognition, “standing before [God’s] throne,” but are not those whom God selects to be the “sealed” 144,000. As to this “great crowd,” the vision goes on to point out that they serve God day and night and will be protected and will be cared for by him.—Re 7:15-17.

2007-09-04 08:33:34 · answer #10 · answered by papa G 6 · 0 1

fedest.com, questions and answers