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The popular theory is that there were two world wars in the 20th century. World War 1, with Germany and the Austro-Hungarian Empire against England, France, Japan, Russia and the US; and World War 2, with Germany, Italy and Japan against England, France, the Soviet Union and the US. Isn't it more accurate to say there was really one world war, with Germany and her allies against France, England and their allies?

There were 20 years between the end of "WW1" and the beginning of "WW2", but the German need for living space and resources was a dominant theme of both wars. Germany was not actually defeated in 1919, they merely signed an armistice. The unconditional surrender requirement, and the actual conquest of Germany and Berlin by Churchill, Stalin and Roosevelt finally ended the latest 30 years' war (1914-1945).

Do you agree?

2007-09-03 10:24:55 · 12 answers · asked by A Plague on your houses 5 in Politics & Government Military

12 answers

I see your point but I disagree. They were two different wars. The reasons for both wars starting are different. WWI started because of international tension stemming from the Napoleonic era being sparked by an assassination. When WWI ended Germany got stiffed by the Allies under the Treaty of Versailles. This was part of Germany's motivation to start invading countries later on causing WWII. The way I see it, each one started because of a different cause, but are related. WWII was a "sequel" or continuation of WWI, but are two distinct and different conflicts. That is why I hate it when people talk about WWIII, because that is a misnomer. WWIII would have to be a continuation of WWII to be called so.

2007-09-03 10:55:00 · answer #1 · answered by Anonymous · 3 0

There were actually two different germanys in both wars.The german empire legally ceased to exist in 1918 when the emperor went into exile and a new constitution was written, creating a republic to replace the former empire.In terms of law,
1939s germany is the successor of 1918s germany, but not the same country.
Furthermore, this point of view neglects the war in Asia 1937-1946 and the racist and ideological note to WWII.

2007-09-03 16:17:03 · answer #2 · answered by eelliko 6 · 2 0

The ending of the first war was the cause of the 2nd war in Europe (and Iraq today) but this does not account for Japan in Asia (and Japan changed sides and went from a minor to a Major player)

2007-09-03 19:26:34 · answer #3 · answered by MP US Army 7 · 0 0

World war 2 was like world war 1 part 2. The armistice was screwed up because we lied to germany and changed everything in it around.

2007-09-03 11:33:22 · answer #4 · answered by Patsfan 6 · 2 2

Yep well if you explain it like that, you are right. The two wars are very much linked together, but there is a distinction because there was a period of peace, and also the two wars were fought for different reasons.

2007-09-03 11:21:02 · answer #5 · answered by St. Bastard 4 · 3 0

i disagree with you. WW I was not about living space and resources. well resources are a important part of waging war but it was not fought because of them. it had to do with a complex series of treaties that ended in war that escalated in to a world war.
WW II was about living space in part, but more so because of a ego maniac that was bent on waging war and eliminating the Jews and others he saw as subhumans. every one else just got dragged down the road of war because of appeasement minded people.

2007-09-03 12:45:13 · answer #6 · answered by darrell m 5 · 3 0

They started for different reasons. Germany surrendered, they lost. Then they decided to get rid of their goofy helmets and try again, then they lost again. They decided the US is just better at kicking butt and backed off.... any questions?

2007-09-03 11:41:09 · answer #7 · answered by Colter B 5 · 2 0

DO NOT AGREE!! There were two world wars,
both were fought over different reasons!!!

2007-09-03 14:17:46 · answer #8 · answered by Vagabond5879 7 · 0 0

don't agree. the two wars were fought over 2 different concepts

2007-09-03 10:31:33 · answer #9 · answered by Anonymous · 7 0

let's take this even further.

at the end of world war 2 the world felt guilty about was done to the jews. so the world allowed zionist militias to use terrorism to steal the land of the pals.

that even is now fueling world war 3 between the US/israel and those who support the pals.

so one could argue that three world war resulted from some schmuck shooting another schmuck and the schmuck's wife.

2007-09-03 10:35:23 · answer #10 · answered by Anonymous · 0 4

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