More than likely because of the Spanish Inquisition. Mexico was inhabited by Native American Indians until the Spaniards came and changed their way of life. Much like when the whites came and changed the Native Americans way of life. My grandfather was of Mayan descent, but he had the last name of Medrano. My boss is of Aztec descent and her last name is Ochoa.
2007-08-31 04:14:25
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answer #1
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answered by Sparkles 7
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Almost all surnames of Mexican citizens are Spanish, just like the Phillipines.
What are you calling a "Mexican" surname? One that is common in the nation of Mexico? One that is common for people of the Mexican nationality? One that is common for Mexican indians (even most Mexican indians have Spanish surnames)?
2007-08-31 04:17:31
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answer #2
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answered by US_Justice_101 2
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If you compare common names in different Latin American countries, you see that they do vary a lot. For example, Garcia is very common in Spain and Mexico, but Martinez is much more common in the Dominican Republic. There will be a lot of overlap between the most common names in Spain and Mexico, but because Latin America names come from immigrants and natives and slaves taking on Spanish names, there will be some names which are much more common in one place than the other. Some family names of people who came over to Mexico early on and had a lot of children in the first few generations might be much more common in Mexico than in Spain. The same is true if you compare Holland with the South Africans who are descendants of the Dutch. If you compare English-sounding American names with English names, there are differences, though, because a lot of German Muellers changed their names to Miller, and Swedish Anderssens changed their names to Anderson, and so on.
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Just want to emphasize - most of the names in Mexico are the same as the names in Spain, but the frequencies are a little different. Also, Mexico has had more immigration from places other than Spain. Salma Hayek, whose name is Lebanese, and Louis CK, whose father was a Mexican of Hungarian descent whose name was Szekaly are probably the most famous, at least to Americans.
2007-08-31 04:32:09
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answer #3
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answered by Thomas M 6
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Probably so. Spain conquered Mexico and the southern Americas and pretty much obliterated the leaders of the native peoples and their families. The surnames that exist today are pretty much of Spanish, rather than Indian, descent.
2007-08-31 04:24:00
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answer #4
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answered by Anonymous
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Spanish surnames are Spanish whether they come from Spain or Mexico.
2007-08-31 04:53:22
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answer #5
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answered by marie s 4
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They are IDENTICAL. Unless they are of Prehispanic origin. Not only are Spanish and Mexican last names the same so are Spanish and Bolivian, Uruguayan, Peruvian, Colombian, Argentinian, Paraguayan, Chilean, Panamenian and just about every other country who was once settled by Spaniards.
2007-08-31 05:08:20
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answer #6
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answered by delina_m 6
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Its most like the same. I mean I am Colombian yet I meet Mexicans with my last name and vice versa!
2007-08-31 06:52:03
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answer #7
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answered by <Carol> 5
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Could be if they are of Spanish decent or are descendants of slave holders and when free took the names. Remember many European countries had "empires" and their descendants are all over the world. Some Irish names are derived from Spain
2007-08-31 04:17:59
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answer #8
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answered by marine42 2
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Well, since Spain is mostly a "white" country, and the Mexicans use "Spanish" names, then their names are Spanish and White.
2007-08-31 04:39:33
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answer #9
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answered by ProLife Liberal 5
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Latin American Last Names
2016-11-12 19:07:17
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answer #10
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answered by ? 4
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