will someone please explain how Jesus "fulfilled" God's law but didn't change it?

Question

If you point out the differences between the laws of the Deuteronomy and those that Christians say are okay, they all say that Jesus made those laws irrelevant. If you point out that the Bible repeatedly says that it's laws are eternal (never to be changed or updated) they say Jesus fulfilled the law. What are you talking about and how does this answer the question?

For JJ who needs obvious -

God saying the law is eternal
(Exodus 12:14, 12:17, 12:43, 27:21, 28:43, Leviticus 3:17, 7:36, 10:9, 16:29, 16:31, 16:34, 17:7, 23:14, 23:21, 23:31, 23:41, 24:3, Numbers 10:8, 15:15, 19:10, 19:21, 18:23, 35:29, Deuteronomy29:28)

couple acts of Jesus changing the law
(Matthew 5:39, Act 10:10-15 )

PEOPLE! HELLO?? Jesus isn't more important than the GOD of the Old Testement. They're supposed to be the SAME remember????

Answer 1

Children of isreal are bound by those laws. Most christians are Gentiles, and therefore never have had to.
Jesus was the one that said he came to "fufill" ..abide by.. the law and did so erraneously.

Answer 2

The Sadducees only recognized the Torah, the first five books of Moses -- the examples you cited. ((Exodus 12:14, 12:17, 12:43, 27:21, 28:43, Leviticus 3:17, 7:36, 10:9, 16:29, 16:31, 16:34, 17:7, 23:14, 23:21, 23:31, 23:41, 24:3, Numbers 10:8, 15:15, 19:10, 19:21, 18:23, 35:29, Deuteronomy29:28)

THOSE laws were written during a specific time, and were observed by people who were more or less frozen in time -- modern Muslims, for example, who more or less observe the same laws.

They believed God spoke once, and stopped speaking.

The Pharisees DID recognize the prophets, and they did recognize Jesus as a teacher, "rabbi." So when Jesus talked about "fulfilling" the law, he was talking about he being sent to fulfill the prophesies proclaiming that a Messiah would come.

The different parts of the Bible were written by different people over the course of thousands of years, FOR different people -- all before Paul penning the first letter.

Godspeed.

Answer 3

You are confusing the law of God with the law of Moses.

Also, when the term "law" is used, it can commonly refer to the entirety of the old testament.

Did Jesus "fulfill" prophesies in the law, or not?

Now... where does it say these laws are eternal? It doesn't so say; just the opposite, as found in Jeremiah 31 regarding a new covenant (law) that was not to be like the old covenant law.

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Answer 4

Jesus said I didn't come to do away with the law but too fulfill it? So the question is which law was He fulfilling? The law of Moses? Or that of David? Perhaps the law of the fore fathers? In any case He is the law as the Blood overrides any piece of paper and now is not the law but rather the PRICE!

Answer 5

Christ did not here suggest that the binding nature of the law of moses would remain forever in effect. such a view would contradict everything we learn from the balance of the new testament record

in this context, “abolish” is set in opposition to “fulfill.” Christ came “...not to abolish, but to fulfill.” the meaning is this. Jesus did not come to this earth for the purpose of acting as an opponent of the law. his goal was not to prevent its fulfillment. rather, he obeyed it and brought it to fruition. he fulfilled the law’s prophetic utterances regarding himself. Christ fulfilled the demands of the mosaic law, which called for perfect obedience, or else imposed a “curse” in this sense, the law’s divine design will ever have an abiding effect. it will always accomplish the purpose for which it was given.

if, however, the law of moses bears the same relationship to men today, in terms of its binding status, as it did before Christ came, then it was not fulfilled, and Jesus failed at what he came “to do.” on the other hand, if the lord did accomplish what he came to accomplish, then the law was fulfilled, and it isn't a binding legal institution today.

further, if the law of moses was not fulfilled by Christ, and thus remains as a binding legal system for today, then it isn't just partially binding. rather, it is totally compelling system. Jesus plainly said that not one jot or tittle would pass away until all was fulfilled. so nothing of the law was to fail until it had completely accomplished its purpose. Jesus fulfilled the law. Jesus fulfilled all of the law. we can't say that Jesus fulfilled the sacrificial system, but did not fulfill the other aspects of the law. Jesus either fulfilled all of the law, or none of it. what Jesus' death means for the sacrificial system, it also means for the other aspects of the law. hope this cleared things up.

Answer 6

Rom 10:4 For Christ is the end of the Law, so that everyone exercising faith may have righteousness.

Many of the commandments are still valid, like do not kill, fornication, adultery, etc., but the sacrifices are no longer needed to have a good relationship with God, as long as one believes that Jesus was the Son of God and keeps the commandments expounded by him.

Answer 7

During his life Christ was perfect and sinless. By living this way He fulfilled the law. He fulfilled all its requirements. Then He died and rose again. Christ said in Matthew that the law will not pass away until it was fulfilled. His life and death fulfilled it and thus it passed away.

In Romans we are told because of what Christ did we are dead to the law and thus no longer under it.

Romans 7:4 Wherefore, my brethren, ye also are become dead to the law by the body of Christ; that ye should be married to another, even to him who is raised from the dead, that we should bring forth fruit unto God.
Rom 7:5 For when we were in the flesh, the motions of sins, which were by the law, did work in our members to bring forth fruit unto death.
Rom 7:6 But now we are delivered from the law, that being dead wherein we were held; that we should serve in newness of spirit, and not in the oldness of the letter.


For a good discussion on this visit this website.

http://www.gotquestions.org/abolish-fulfill-law.html

Answer 8

A covenant by definition is a lopsided deal, with on side providing more than the other, simply because it's necessary.

God has always held up his end of the covenants he made with man, and he has always reserved the right to replace one covenant with another ... especially when man fails to keep his end of the deal ... and the replacement covenant is better than the original.

In the end, Jesus fulfilled the old law and then he set it aside ... so he DIDN'T change it ... he eliminated it.

Answer 9

He fulfilled the law by living a sinless life. Something that none of us can do.

The law remains in tact, and He even made it more difficult by saying things like...you have heard to commitment adultery is a sin, but I say to even look upon a woman and lust after her is a sin. (paraphrase)

By driving this fact home, He let all see that there is no other way to the Father except through His sacrifice on the cross.

You must be born again.

Answer 10

In Matthew’s record of what is commonly called, “The Sermon on the Mount,” these words of Jesus are recorded: "Do not think that I have come to abolish the Law or the Prophets; I have not come to abolish them but to fulfill them. I tell you the truth, until heaven and earth disappear, not the smallest letter, not the least stroke of a pen, will by any means disappear from the Law until everything is accomplished" (Matthew 5:17-18).

It is frequently argued that if Jesus did not “abolish” the law, then it must still be binding. Accordingly, such components as the “Sabbath day” requirement must be operative still, along with perhaps numerous other elements of the Mosaic Law. This assumption is grounded upon a misunderstanding of the words and intent of this passage. Christ did not here suggest that the binding nature of the law of Moses would remain forever in effect. Such a view would contradict everything we learn from the balance of the New Testament record (Romans 10:4; Galatians 3:23-25; Ephesians 2:15). Consider the following points.

Of special significance in this study is the word rendered “abolish.” It translates the Greek term “kataluo,” literally meaning to “loose down.” The word is found seventeen times in the New Testament. It is used, for example, of the destruction of the Jewish temple by the Romans (Matthew 26:61; 27:40; Acts 6:14), and of the dissolving of the human body at death (2 Corinthians 5:1). The term can carry the extended meaning of “to overthrow,” i.e., to “render vain, deprive of success.” In classical Greek, it was used in connection with institutions, laws, etc., to convey the idea of “to invalidate.”

It is especially important to note how the word is used in Matthew 5:17. In this context, “abolish” is set in opposition to “fulfill.” Christ came “...not to abolish, but to fulfill.” The meaning is this. Jesus did not come to this earth for the purpose of acting as an opponent of the law. His goal was not to prevent its fulfillment. Rather, he revered it, loved it, obeyed it, and brought it to fruition. He fulfilled the law’s prophetic utterances regarding himself (Luke 24:44). Christ fulfilled the demands of the Mosaic law, which called for perfect obedience, or else imposed a “curse” (see Galatians 3:10,13). In this sense, the law’s divine design will ever have an abiding effect. It will always accomplish the purpose for which it was given.

If, however, the law of Moses bears the same relationship to men today, in terms of its binding status, as it did before Christ came, then it was not fulfilled, and Jesus failed at what he came “to do.” On the other hand, if the Lord did accomplish what he came to accomplish, then the law was fulfilled, and it is not a binding legal institution today. Further, if the law of Moses was not fulfilled by Christ, and thus remains as a binding legal system for today, then it is not just partially binding. Rather, it is totally compelling system. Jesus plainly said that not one “jot or tittle” (representative of the smallest markings of the Hebrew script) would pass away until all was fulfilled. Consequently, nothing of the law was to fail until it had completely accomplished its purpose. Jesus fulfilled the law. Jesus fulfilled all of the law. We cannot say that Jesus fulfilled the sacrificial system, but did not fulfill the other aspects of the law. Jesus either fulfilled all of the law, or none of it. What Jesus' death means for the sacrificial system, it also means for the other aspects of the law.

Recommended Resource: Bible Answers for Almost all Your Questions by Elmer Towns.

Answer 11

The Old Testament law was collectively called "the law", but not all instances of the word "law" are meant in that sense.

Some of the law in the books of Moses were criminal and civil laws, laws regulating how the state of Israel should be administered and run. Others reflected cultural and social conditions - family laws dealing with marriage, divorce, inheritence, bride prices, land rights, food and hygene, health and safety and the like. These laws applied to ancient Israel, in a certain time, place and culture, but they do not necessarily apply now as we are not living in a theocracy, but in countries that have their own sets of laws based on their own situations and needs. Jesus himself showed that we do not need to stick rigidly to these laws when he gave his teaching about divorce law, and the "eye for an eye" law. And the New Testament church came to the conclusion that a lot of the Jewish cultural laws, even things like circumcision, need not be applied to Gentile believers.

When Jesus (or Paul) talks about Jesus fulfilling the law, he is not referring to laws like the criminal justice system laws, civil laws, and so on that were part of Israel as a theocracy, but to those laws that have a spiritual or moral meaning, those laws that are reflections of deep moral principles, of God's character. They were talking about laws like the ten commandments.

When the Bible says that sin is the transgression of the law (1John 3:4), it is this kind of law that it has in mind - God's moral law. Sin is immorality. The Bible also says that "whatever does not proceed from faith is sin" (Romans 14:23) - sin has to do with relationships. The law that is broken to produce sin, is the kind of law that has to do with our relationship with God and with man. It is the law that Jesus summed up as love God first and best, and love your neighbour as yourself.

Our ancestors Adam and Eve sinned because they did not fulfill the requirements of the law, they did not keep the law. They were motivated by selfishness and lack of faith to eat the forbidden fruit, and this is how the human race fell into sin.

Jesus came to be the second Adam, the new man to represent the human race. He came to un-do what Adam did by failing to keep the law and sinning. Thus Jesus, the son of man, the second Adam, fulfilled the law perfectly, by keeping it and living a perfectly moral and sinless life (1Corinthians 15:22,45).

There is a penalty for breaking laws. The penalty for breaking God's moral laws is death. Under the law, we are all sentenced to die because we have broken the law. Jesus paid the penalty for our sins by dying for us (and he could only have done so if he was sinless, otherwise he himself would have need a saviour), and so we are no longer under the sentence of death that our breaking of the law brought us.