One of my intubated patients (dominant-hemisphere meningioma that beld) had been "chugging" really bad on the vent. I'd been suctioning for scant sputum. The nurse giving me shift change repor said the intensivist said his PSV was set at too low a rate. He was in a hurry to go, so I didn't have chance to ask why this helped. Before *his* shift, the previous RN had given him 800 mcg fentanyl, 15 mg Versed, 200 mg of hydralazine, and 60 mg labetalol for high SBP (>180) and high ICP (in the high 20s to low 30s (mmHg)). After the PSV was raised from +6 to +10 (cm H20), the patient's BP was under control and he was settled, needing only 200 mcg fentanyl and 20 mg hydralazine on the shift befor mine, and absolutely nothing on my shift. What is the rationale for increasing the pressure support? Also, what is "autopeeping?" -- his PEEP was raised to +15 to prevent autopeep.
2007-08-28
22:48:12
·
1 answers
·
asked by
Jonathan S
1
in
Science & Mathematics
➔ Medicine