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Plato - " Only the dead have seen the end of war"

I have found online translators, but it doesn't get all the words. Going for how it might have actually been written. Although I believe it was in greek ( classical) to begin with.

2007-08-28 19:49:17 · 3 answers · asked by yacko_one 2 in Society & Culture Languages

3 answers

solus mortuus finis bellum vidivi.

Edit: TO THE SMART-*** KNOW-IT-ALL BELOW ME: No, I did NOT copy from a dictionary, thank you! And as for being very wrong ... I think YOU need to think before making unfounded accusations. I have taken four years Latin ... what about you?! I may be a little rusty, since it's been a while working with my declensions, as well as my conjugations and my tenses. I seriously doubt that you will find ANY Latin dictionary that will have this phrase written in it.

vidivi is a form of videre, which means to see.

I come by my answers honestly! It REALLY pisses me off when I take the time to answer a question, and because some PERSON disagrees with my answer, I get accused of copying it from somewhere! At least I gave an honest attempt! When you've poured the time and energy AND love into Latin that I have, then you can talk. Next time you throw accusations, know what you're talking about. You're not even supposed to capitalize the first word in a Latin sentence if it isn't the name of a person or a place ... THAT shows just how much you know about Latin!

To yacko_one: This is the answer I stand by. I may be a little bit off, since, as I said before, I haven't used my declensions in a while. I wasn't 100% on it until I poured over my old Latin books, looking over the parts of speech, and searching for the best way in which this might have been phrased in the Latin world. I answered your question sincerely, and if I'm wrong in any way ... well ... guess I'll soon know, since I have a Latin class to go to in about an hour.

Thank you.

additional details: Well ... I've returned from class, and here's the verdict: My instructor has reaffirmed my original answer!

solus mortuus finis bellum vidivi.

I also asked my former instructor, whose word I trust more than anyone else's ... for the simple reason that she is a linguist whose lifelong field of study is Latin. This is how she translated this sentence:

soli mortui finem belli viderunt.
and
soli mortui finitem belli viderunt.

Either one is acceptable, although she prefers the latter,

soli mortui finitem belli viderunt,

as it relays the idea much better than the former.

My initial mistake was that I didn't recognize that mortuus (the dead) is the singular form of the noun, whereas mortui is the plural form. I'd also conjugated the verb videre (to see) in a different tense ... which doesn't necessarily make it wrong, but it changes the meaning a little bit. Viderunt, on the other hand, can mean three different things: It can mean 'they saw', 'they were seeing', or 'they have seen'. I already knew the first two ways of translating 'viderunt', but I didn't account for the third way!

I suppose this means that Sextus Marius' answer must've been ... very wrong. Hmmm ... Of course ... I wouldn't be UGLY enough - OR presumptious enough - to make that assumption without being a very good translator.

This was a VERY good question, yacko_one! It really made me think, and go back over books I hadn't gone over in quite a while ... and it made me reconnect to the language in a big way.

2007-08-28 20:59:11 · answer #1 · answered by Jewels 7 · 0 3

Apparently, the quote was originally written in English in 1924 and has been erroneously attributed to Plato. Any translation to Latin (or Greek) would be starting from that English base.

Soli mortui finem belli viderunt.

2007-08-29 02:56:36 · answer #2 · answered by dollhaus 7 · 1 0

There may be a classical translation with a standard way to phrase it, but I would say:

Solum mortui finem belli viderunt.

(The above poster seems to have just copied word for word from a dictionary and is very wrong.)

2007-08-28 20:59:56 · answer #3 · answered by Sextus Marius 3 · 0 1

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