In 1996, did the voter turnout for the presidential election fall below the 50% rate for the first time since?

Question

since the early 1920s when women had only just been given the vote????

Answer 1

Yes, but you have to factor in the effects of the 1996 National Voter Registration Act (NVRA aka Motor Voter). For the first time, voter registration was conducted outside of election offices--most notably at DMVs, Libraries, and other social service agencies. Many people registered to vote who had no intention of voting--some even thinking they "had" to register to receive whatever benefits they were really there to apply for.

As a result of this, the voter lists swelled, and for the first time, the percentage of those who did vote was diluted by those who never intended to vote.

That is why, since 1996, our national percentage of turnout has consistently been lower than it was prior to 1996.

Answer 2

I don't understand how a higher turnout could possibly be a source of "bias." The more people who turn out, the more strongly the vote totals represent the opinions of the entire electorate. It would be more accurate to say that the ABSENCE of turnout in the runoff created bias in favor of Chambliss.

Answer 3

49%. And you have to factor in that only half of those eligible to vote are registered to vote. So, the percentage of eligible voters who cast a ballot is half of that 49%.

Answer 4

Yeah 49%.