Or are born infertile?
Alleninthehills - Put in context, it is even MORE misogynist than standing alone!
And I still don't see anything in the context that makes this salvation any different from salvation mentioned elsewhere in the NT. Your extrapolations are nothing more than YOUR extrapolations.
2007-08-27 09:16:22
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answer #1
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answered by Anonymous
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Some translators seem to imply that a woman’s salvation depends on her having children. For example, Today’s English Version says: “A woman will be saved through having children.” However, this interpretation of Paul’s words is not accurate. Many scriptures show that to be saved, a person must come to know Jehovah, believe in Jesus, and exercise faith, demonstrating that faith by works. (John 17:3; Acts 16:30, 31) In addition, Paul did not mean that safe childbirth is guaranteed to believing women. Women have come safely through the experience of giving birth whether they were believers or not. And sadly, some have died giving birth, whether they were believers or not.
Paul’s additional counsel regarding women later in this same letter helps us to understand what he meant. He warns of some younger widows who were “unoccupied, gadding about to the houses; yes, not only unoccupied, but also gossipers and meddlers in other people’s affairs, talking of things they ought not.” What was Paul’s advice? He continues: “Therefore I desire the younger widows to marry, to bear children, to manage a household, to give no inducement to the opposer to revile.” 1 Timothy 5:13, 14.
Paul highlights the positive role of women in the family arrangement. Occupied with such activities as ‘bearing children and managing a household,’ a woman who continued “in faith and love and sanctification along with soundness of mind” would not gravitate toward conduct that is not upbuilding. Her spirituality would be preserved, or “kept safe.” Following such a course would help many young women to avoid Satan’s snares.
2007-08-27 18:18:28
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answer #2
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answered by BJ 7
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It's quite simple, really: sex bad, babies good, the great paradox of the ages. Since women were obviously the tempters of men, they had the real power to distract men from proper worship of God. Their sole redeeming quality was their ability to turn semen into new men. And with the imminent arrival of Jesus, that would soon not be necessary. So the best thing women could do would be to be quiet, modest and-- not tempting. Failing that, make more babies. Nothing need happen to babyless women, as long as they behaved themselves and let the poor men go on worshipping properly.
2007-08-27 16:37:51
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answer #3
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answered by skepsis 7
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Paul's main concern in this section is proper order within the church. Men, he writes, should pray and teach. Women should adorn themselves modestly and do good works, but they should not be teaching publicly or leading men. Verse 15 explains what their primary concern should be: "childbearing." Thus, it means that much of God's judgment of women will be based on how well they perform their God-given role in bearing children.
To us, this sounds quite misogynistic, but to the Greek speaker "childbearing" (teknogonia) covers a great deal more ground than just "popping out babies." The Strong's Concordance definition shows that the extended meaning is "maternity (the performance of maternal duties)."
2007-08-27 16:11:52
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answer #4
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answered by Mark 3
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11Let the woman learn in silence with all subjection.
12But I suffer not a woman to teach, nor to usurp authority over the man, but to be in silence.
13For Adam was first formed, then Eve.
14And Adam was not deceived, but the woman being deceived was in the transgression.
15Notwithstanding she shall be saved in childbearing, if they continue in faith and charity and holiness with sobriety.
When you put the verse in the context it was wrote in, you will see that Paul is teaching not that women are "saved" as in redeamed by childbearing, but as a man will recieve his reward for teaching, preaching etc, a women will recieve her rewared by doing what a women should, being a wife, a mother, a daughter, humble and loving.
2007-08-27 16:10:59
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answer #5
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answered by Anonymous
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1 Timothy 2:15 doesn't address women who die before they have children. Just because "if 'a', then 'b'" is true does not mean that "if '-a', then '-b'" is true as well.
2007-08-27 16:33:52
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answer #6
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answered by Deof Movestofca 7
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This verse is not speaking of the salvation of the soul. Read the whole chapter and you will understand that the verse is discussing the preaching of the Word of God. Women are advised not to teach to men because they are supposed to live lives of subjection to men. The verse is telling women to preach the Word of God to their children causing their children to know the Word and follow God because women are not under subjection to their children and are charged with their care.
2007-08-27 16:14:30
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answer #7
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answered by Amanda B 1
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Obviously, that was before the advent of the concept of overpopulation and child support issues.
2007-08-27 16:20:53
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answer #8
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answered by Patrick the Carpathian, CaFO 7
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1st Timothy was a forgery. It was written in Pauls name, but not by Paul. The grammar, word selection, theological viewpoint, and view of history are all different than his actual writings.
Writing in the names of the apostles was common in those days. That's why the Gospels of Peter, Thomas and the Revelation of Peter were left out of the New Testament, they were forgeries too; even though many in the early Church considered them to be authentic.
2007-08-27 16:05:57
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answer #9
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answered by Anonymous
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They go the big library in the sky and catalogue
2007-08-27 16:06:24
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answer #10
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answered by Anonymous
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