Well then, was Jesus the only begotten son of God?

Question

Well then, was Jesus the only begotten son of God?

Read Psalms 2:7 : "I will declare the decree: the LORD hath said unto me (King David, King), Thou art my Son; this day have I begotten thee"

Indeed, the Jews are even referred to as much more than this in the Bible, and this is indeed the very trait which Jesus (pbuh) held against them. When the Jews picked up stones to stone Jesus (pbuh) he defended himself with the following words

"Jesus answered them, Is it not written in your law, 'I said, Ye are gods?' If he called them gods, unto whom the word of God came, and the scripture cannot be broken..." John 10:34:

(he was referring to Psalms 82:6 "I have said, Ye are gods; and all of you are children of the most High..") As we can see from these and many other verses like them, "son of God" in the language of the Jews was a very innocent term used to describe a loyal servant of God. Whether the translators and editors chose to write it as "Son of God" (with a capital S) in reference to Jesus and "son of God" (with a small S) in reference to everyone else does not diminish the fact that in the original language, both cases are exactly the same. Are we beginning to see what drove the most learned men of the Anglican Church to recognize the truth? But let us move on.

Answer 1

The term "only begotten Son" is from the gospel of John, King James version:

John 1:18
No man hath seen God at any time, the only begotten Son, which is in the bosom of the Father, he hath declared him.

John 3:16
For God so loved the world, that he gave his only begotten Son, that whosoever believeth in him should not perish, but have everlasting life.

John 3:18
He that believeth on him is not condemned: but he that believeth not is condemned already, because he hath not believed in the name of the only begotten Son of God.

Other translations, like the NIV, refer to God's one and only son, e.g., in John 3:16:

For God so loved the world that he gave his one and only Son, that whoever believes in him shall not perish but have eternal life.

This suggests, as a previous answer pointed out, that Ps 2:7 is a prophecy of Jesus. Concerning John 10:34, I agree with this commentator (reference below):

The Jews were willing to accept the statement from their own law that described God’s appointed judges among His people as “gods.” Jesus quoted Psalms 82:6, and it is significant to note that He says that Psalms belonged to their “law” (cf. Rom. 3:19, 10-18). Jesus stated that which his Jewish opponents conceded. Namely, that it stood written in the law (i.e., it was firmly established by the binding nature of God’s law) that God said of men, “Ye are gods” (Jn 10:34-35). Then, Jesus affirmed the authoritative force of Scripture by saying, “the scripture cannot be broken” (Jn 10:35). Inspired scripture cannot be deprived of its binding authority by the whims of men. All individuals are obligated to harmonize their beliefs and practices to the authority of God’s writings.

Answer 2

Read Psalm 22.
Do you honestly think that King David wrote this about HIMSELF??
This Psalm is all about the crucifixion of Jesus Christ. David writes it from the Lord's point of view. Psalms is written just like the rest of the Bible. INSPIRED BY GOD.
Psalm 2:7 is about Jesus , not David. God Bless.
You are also taking John 10:34 out of context. He calls them "gods", not Gods.

Answer 3

Begotten manner born of human girl. Bibles are translations and models. In the category that I train we adore to have as many distinctive bible as viable despite the fact that a few variations while all learn they are saying the equal factor simply in somewhat distinctive language. No we do not have the correct to difference what the bible says. however to make use of an extra language isn't exchanging the bible despite the fact that we ought to return to the usual now and then to get an extra sort of the phrase that looses it which means repeatedly.

Answer 4

Psalms 2 is referring to the Messiah, you err in thinking it was referenced to King David, Psa 2:2 The kings of the earth set themselves, and the rulers take counsel together, against the LORD, and against his anointed, saying,
Psa 2:3 Let us break their bands asunder, and cast away their cords from us.
Psa 2:4 He that sitteth in the heavens shall laugh: the Lord shall have them in derision.
Psa 2:5 Then shall he speak unto them in his wrath, and vex them in his sore displeasure.
Psa 2:6 Yet have I set my king upon my holy hill of Zion.
Psa 2:7 I will declare the decree: the LORD hath said unto me, Thou art my Son; this day have I begotten thee. The key is in Verse 2 where it refers to the anointed, that is the Messiah, King David was not the Messiah. Or why would King David have not redeemed Israel during his time? The Messiah is the one spoken of throughout this passage.
There is only One God, who took upon Himself human flesh when the Spirit of God came to earth in the human we call Jesus. For Jesus was the bodily manifestation of the One God not a separate part of the so called Godhead of the Trinitarians. for in that they are in error. God is not 3 but ONE and the Name of that one is Jesus Christ. For there is no other name given among men whereby we must be saved. Acts 4:10-12

Answer 5

Jesus is actually the first born of many. Check the Bible

Answer 6

Jesus was the very first thing God created. He was a spirit (angel) in heaven for nobody-knows-how-long before he came to earth as a human. We are all God's children as is evident by what Jesus said when he told his followers how to pray, "Our Father, who art in heaven..." Jesus was also referred to as Son of David, because he was one of David's descendants. They didn't go there with the great-great-great grandfather stuff.

Answer 7

the bible says that once someone is saved by believeing in jesus and calling upon him, then we are now children of god, he is now our father, it is referred to as an adoption. but jesus is his only son.

Answer 8

We are all begotten by God as spirits. Jesus was the only begotten in the flesh.

Answer 9

The Essenes, (who lived at the time of Christ) often reffered to themselves as the 'Sons of God'. Christ reffered to himself as the 'Son of God' and the 'Son of man.' These figures of speech were common during that time period.

Answer 10

Hmm... well the Bible says "his only begotton son" quite a bit... so I believe he probably was.