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One professer at college says yes the other says the opposite

2007-08-26 17:38:33 · 7 answers · asked by maxsteel 1 in Politics & Government Military

7 answers

The constitution says only congress has the right to declare war, but it doesn't say specifically how it has to declare war. So their vote to authorize force may or may not have been a legal declaration.

2007-08-26 17:45:40 · answer #1 · answered by Anonymous · 1 0

The last time we declared war on another country was in April of 1917, when we declared war on Imperial Germany. On December 8, 1941 the Congress passed a resolution affirming that a state of war had existed with Japan because of the unprovoked attack on Pearl Harbor.
Public Law #107-40 was passed by the Congress on September 18, 2001 and authorized military operations to combat terrorism as a reaction to the attack on America of September 11, 2001. That led to two different military operations. Operation Enduring Freedom for operations in Afghanistan and Operation Noble Eagle for defense of the U.S. homeland.
Public Law #107-243 was passed in 2002 and authorized the use of military force against Iraq. The reasons listed in that law were a mirror of those which Congress had listed in Public Law # 105-338 (the Iraq Liberation Act) which was signed into law on October 31,1998. That led to Operation Iraqi Freedom which was launched on March 19, 2003.

2007-08-26 19:04:40 · answer #2 · answered by desertviking_00 7 · 0 0

Yes there was. Maybe the one professor has never heard of WWII and that whole Pearl Harbor thing. The next day we declared war on Japan (08 December 1941). Then on 11 December 1941 we declared war on Germany and Italy. The last declaration came on 05 June 1942 Bulgaria, Hungary, and Romania.
If you are referring to the current "Iraq War", than no. There was no declaration of war, only an authorization by Congress to use military force.
Joint Resolution114 passed the HOR on 10 October 2002 (296-133), and the Senate on 11 October 2002 (77-23). It was signed into law by President Bush on October 16, 2002.

2007-08-26 17:49:23 · answer #3 · answered by erehwon 4 · 0 1

You must be speaking of the current conflicts in Afghanistan and Iraq.

No. Neither action has had a formal declaration of war.

However, both had large majorities FROM BOTH PARTIES that voted specifically to give the President authorization to use whatever force needed in those countries.

Many liberals claim the Iraq war is 'illegal' because there was no declaration. They convieniently forget that no declaration was made in Afghanistan either --- or for Bosnia or for Kosovo or for Somolia or the Clinton bombing campaigns etc... Actually Iraq is 'more legal' since it has specific legislation passed to authorize the President to send in the military.

2007-08-26 17:50:55 · answer #4 · answered by SMBR 5 · 0 0

No, I don't think there was. Yes, the Congress voted to send troops and to allocate funds for the war, but I don't believe there was any official declaration of war like there was on December 8, 1941 against Imperial Japan.

2007-08-26 17:44:58 · answer #5 · answered by Anonymous · 1 2

1812 against the British

1917 against Germany

1941 against Japan 8 Dec. Against Germany and Italy 11 Dec

2007-08-26 17:54:06 · answer #6 · answered by Stand-up philosopher. It's good to be the King 7 · 0 0

while i am against the lying war in iraq (let's see if the censors hide this one) i don't think this is a relevant argument. while the iraq war resolution is not technically a declaration of war it essentially is one. it's just a matter of legaleze.

it's not the piece of paper that is the problem. the problem is that bush invaded the wrong country.

2007-08-26 17:46:24 · answer #7 · answered by soperson 4 · 1 3

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