English Deutsch Français Italiano Español Português 繁體中文 Bahasa Indonesia Tiếng Việt ภาษาไทย
All categories

Genesis Chapter 6
1. And it came to pass, when men began to multiply on the face of the earth, and daughters were born unto them,

2. That the sons of God saw the daughters of men that they were fair; and they took them wives of all which they chose.

3. And the LORD said, My spirit shall not always strive with man, for that he also is flesh: yet his days shall be an hundred and twenty years.

4. There were giants [nephilim] in the earth in those days; and also after that, when the sons of God came in unto the daughters of men, and they bare children to them, the same became mighty men which were of old, men of renown.

2007-08-26 08:37:54 · 16 answers · asked by DrMichael 7 in Society & Culture Religion & Spirituality

Nephilim
"(Gen. 6:4; Num. 13:33, R.V.), giants, the Hebrew word left untranslated by the Revisers, the name of one of the Canaanitish tribes. The Revisers have, however, translated the Hebrew gibborim, in Gen. 6:4, 'mighty men'" (Matthew G. Easton)

Dr. Henry M. Morris believes: "These 'giants' were the monstrous progeny of the demon-possessed men and women whose illicit activities led to God's warning of imminent judgment. The Hebrew word is nephilim ("fallen ones"), a term possibly relating to the nature of their spiritual 'parents,' the fallen angels. That they were also physical giants is evident from the fact that the same word is later used in connection with the giants in Canaan at the time of Joshua (Numbers 13:33) and by the fact that the word here was translated in the Septuagint by the Greek word gigantes. (Morris, The Defender's Bible)

http://www.christiananswers.net/dictionary/nephilim.html

2007-08-26 08:38:33 · update #1

16 answers

It is truly hard sometimes to understand the full meaning of the bible. All we can do is try to live a good life. And pray God to give us the understanding of his work.

2007-08-26 10:00:52 · answer #1 · answered by LDJ 5 · 1 1

Nephilim from the root word 'nafala' which means to fall or fallen. Thus the giants are really describing fallen angels who did manifest in physical form. We know this because they had the ability to pro-created with "the daughters of MEN" just like the "sons of God" which could only mean that the have & share a genetic structure like us.

The Ghibbore were the descendants of these Nephilim or simply human gods on earth and the term 'mighty men' were describing the power or dominion which they possesed like Nimrod. This is another way to describe beings from outer worlds interacting and interbreeding with us. In the religious world they are called angels and in the science world they are called aliens.

They are all the same.

2007-08-26 16:08:32 · answer #2 · answered by Alien God 3 · 2 0

Honestly I've studied this and while it is provocative to think of this as some cross breeding between fallen angels and men. I think the best rationalle is the intermarriage between the line of Seth and Cain that produced these Nephillim. You could make a case for the other side invoking the Book of Jude, but I really don't feel that that argument has the most scholarship--though it's been about 4-5 yrs since I've studied this (something could have changed).

2007-08-26 16:19:35 · answer #3 · answered by Todd 7 · 1 1

This was the reason for the Flood in Noahs time. Noah was a preacher who preached against them. The flood was sent to destroy the influx of those hybrids, since children were being born of those unnatural unions. You can read of the guilty Angels in the only Chapter of the Book of Jude.

Do you know what they really wanted? To get Noahs daughters involved; why?
Because Noah's family was the last of the Adamic line that hadn't mixed with them.
If Satan could pollute that line of lineage,
then Christ could not have come thru it.
Get it? This is a spiritual war between Satan and Christ, and all thru History you can see Satans mark on things - he's even today trying to destroy anything that has
Christs spirit in it. There's nothing new under the sun.

2007-08-26 15:47:25 · answer #4 · answered by Anonymous · 2 1

A Verse taken out to Context... is usually a Pre-Text for Error! Usually the Context.... TAKES THE WHOLE BIBLE.. INTO THE LOGIC OF GOD!

See.... Isaiah 28:13.... Precept upon Precept... Line upon Line.. Etc.

Look at what JESUS... said about Angels.. and... Marriage !

(Luke 20:31-to-36) And the third took her; and in like manner the seven also: and they left no children, and died.

(Luk 20:32) Last of all the woman died also.

(Luk 20:33) Therefore in the resurrection whose wife of them is she? for seven had her to wife.

(Luk 20:34) And Jesus answering said unto them, The children of this world marry, and are given in marriage:

(Luk 20:35) But they which shall be accounted worthy to obtain that world, and the resurrection from the dead, neither marry, nor are given in marriage:

(Luk 20:36) Neither can they die any more: = = = for they are equal unto the angels; = = = and are the children of God, being the children of the resurrection.

ANGLES.... " CAN NOT" Procreate...! Neither did those of PRE=FLOOD!

Hollywood... has Perverted the Thinking... with their Demon and Gargoile... movies!

Thanks RR.

2007-08-26 15:50:41 · answer #5 · answered by Anonymous · 1 0

Sorry, but I don't take the bible as a literal course of action. I believe it to be metaphor for the experience of that tribe and as such, should be understood in a metaphoric concept. This shouldn't take away from an understanding og God, or faith, merely serve to enhance the mystery and wonderment.

2007-08-26 19:33:14 · answer #6 · answered by ObscureB 4 · 1 0

I am so sick of all this anti-nephilim propaganda! We have rights, too! Just because I am the product of an unholy union between a woman and a "son of God", it does not make me a living stereotype. Sure, I'm a giant, I'm evil, I love watermelon, I've heard them all before, and I am sick to death about this. I am reporting this post for racism!

2007-08-26 15:48:37 · answer #7 · answered by That Guy 4 · 2 1

This account is entirely based on Sumerian myth. Read the Epic of Gilgamesh, you'll see the parallels.

I interpret the "120 years" to be the maximum lifespan permitted by God at this point in history. Is this so?

See: http://answers.yahoo.com/question/index;_ylt=Ahe3TmKpUR5Qc7uNvaUR5Z_ty6IX?qid=20070814170729AA8TeeQ

.

2007-08-26 15:49:33 · answer #8 · answered by Anonymous · 2 1

I believe it represents the viewpoints of several scholars from thousands of years ago who at the time believed that they were writing the messages of God. At this point, I can't really decipher anything else. :)

2007-08-26 15:47:26 · answer #9 · answered by Alex L 2 · 1 0

No more credible or relevant than the writings of the ancient Greeks and Romans. If fact it sounds very similar to many of their stories.

2007-08-26 15:50:00 · answer #10 · answered by ndmagicman 7 · 1 2

fedest.com, questions and answers