Does this verse (see details) prove that Jesus died for every person in the world?

Question

1 John 2:2 (New International Version)

"He is the atoning sacrifice for our sins, and not only for ours but also for the sins of the whole world."

How can anyone believe that Jesus' death on the cross was only for a select group of people after considering this verse?

Please do not pit Scripture against Scripture in an attempt to prove a Limited Atonement. Just exegete THIS verse. Thanks!

If you MUST bring in other verses, please quote those within the SAME book (1 John).

OK, use ANY verses you want to prove a Limited Atonement.

Answer 1

The limited atonement is not a salvation issue…
So, we should hold to the following saying:
In essentials, unity. In non-essentials, liberty. In all things, charity (or love).

This is a "non-essential"...

So, I don't and can't condemn all the other Christians who have answered incorrectly. They just haven't studied it enough. Booth and kj7gs have given good answers...

This being said, there are a few verses that – with a casual glance – would seem to suggest a universal atonement. And there are many that would seem to suggest a limited atonement. However, both cannot be true – for the Word of God does not contain a single contradiction.

Now then, I used to be an Arminian (though, I didn’t know the term at the time) and did NOT believe in ANY of the five points of so-called “Calvinism” – including the limited atonement. However, after extensive study…I now believe that the five points of Calvinism are, in fact, Biblical.

With this introduction and background, I answer:
The limited atonement is supported by a multitude of scripture, with only a few that “seem” to contradict it. 1 John 2:2 is one of those verses.

In 1 John 2:2, John is saying this:
He is the atoning sacrifice for our sins (Jews who believe), and not only for our (Jews) but also for the sins of the whole world (that is, even for Gentiles, too!).

The scriptures were written by Jews, and Jesus was a Jew…and the Jewish Messiah. However, what confused the Jews about Jesus, was that He did not establish His everlasting kingdom when He came. We, as Christians, know that He will do this when He comes again.

In the prophecies of Isaiah, it was too small a thing for the Messiah to be a light only unto the Jews – He was to be a light even unto the Gentiles! And although this doesn’t seem “strange” today…and Christianity seems to be made up of nothing but Gentiles, back in the days of Jesus, it was a very strange concept for the Jews...

When Jesus came, many Jews believed in Him and they believed in Him as the Jewish Messiah. They still considered the “rest of the world” to be unclean. That is, they thought that only Jews were to be saved through the Messiah. Then, God spoke to Peter while he was in a trance and told him that he shouldn’t call unclean what God has made clean. Peter understood this to mean that EVEN the Gentiles could be made “clean” through the Gospel of the grace of Jesus Christ. And, he then went and visited a Gentile, Cornelius. He shouldn’t have, by Jewish law, and he says, “You are well aware that it is against our law for a Jew to associate with a Gentile or visit him…etc.” -Acts 10:28 But then, Peter goes on to explain the dream he had and then share the Gospel to the Gentiles…and then the Holy Spirit came “even on the Gentiles”!

And then, what does it say? “The circumcised believers (Jews) who had come with Peter were ASTONISHED that the gift of the Holy Spirit had been poured out even on the Gentiles.” -Acts 10:45

You see? The Jews for thousands of years, were the chosen ones of God. And ALL non-Jews (or Gentiles) were considered “the rest of the whole world”…doomed to destruction by God. When God saved Gentiles through faith in His Son Jesus Christ, it astonished the Jews!

This principle is ALL throughout the New Testament – in nearly every book. The BIG NEWS was that God had “opened the door” for even Gentiles! God is not just God of the Jews, but of the Gentiles, as well! He doesn’t just save Jews, but non-Jews as well!

In light of all of this, it is not a “stretch” to see that John is speaking about this in 1 John 2:2…
“Here ye, here ye – Jesus is not only the Savior of Jews…but is the Savior for the whole world!”

The issue is over the word “world”…which has MANY meanings in scripture. Sometimes it is referring to the universe, sometimes to the earth, sometimes to the human race, sometimes to the Gentiles, sometimes to believers only, and sometimes to all non-believers.
If you doubt this, I would suggest reading this very short pamphlet by Arthur Pink:
http://www.pbministries.org/books/pink/Miscellaneous/kosmos.htm

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But lets talk about the atonement...

When Jesus died on the cross, He actually and literally paid the penalty for sin. He didn’t die for the opportunity for people to be forgiven, but actually died for the sins of those who are forgiven!

The whole “problem” that God had in “saving” ANY human was this: all are sinners and all fall short of His glory…and the wages of sin is death. SO, how could a JUST God allow ANY human into Heaven? Answer: accepting the sacrifice of His Son as just payment for the sins of those who have faith:
“…so as to be just AND the one who justifies whose who have faith in Jesus.” -Romans 3:26

Therefore, if anyone who has a true and living faith in Jesus Christ (i.e. one that “works”, or loves; the fruit of the Holy Spirit) were to go to hell, then God would be an UNJUST Judge! For Jesus Christ PAID for those sins. Those sins were already punished! God would not and cannot punish sin “twice” for that would be unjust.

In like manner, if Jesus died for the sins of EVERY single human that has ever lived, lives, or will live…and then if ANYONE went to hell, then God would be unjust!

The only conclusion of universal atonement, when atonement is understood correctly, would be universal salvation – universalism. And this is unbiblical and heretical.

When Jesus died…He didn’t “provide an opportunity”, He actually PAID THE PRICE.

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Here is an article that lists many of the verses I could quote that support limited atonement. And to be fair, there is a list of other verses which seem to indicate universal atonement is true:
http://en.wikipedia.org/wiki/Limited_atonement

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“I lay my life down FOR MY SHEEP….and you are not my sheep…” John, chapter 10
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Yet, even still...ALL who call upon the name of the Lord will be saved.
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For an in-depth analysis, consider the following book:
The Death of Death in the Death of Christ, by John Owen:
http://www.amazon.com/Death-Christ/dp/1846857406/ref=sr_1_3/105-6661795-0376447?ie=UTF8&s=books&qid=1188060782&sr=8-3
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Either way, search the scriptures diligently, like the Bereans…and pray earnestly to God for discernment and wisdom regarding all of these things!

Test all things and hold on to that which is true!
Test the spirits, to see if they are from God!
Test yourself, to see if you are truly in the faith!

Grace and peace be with you in abundance through Jesus Christ, our Lord!

Answer 2

There are two primary passages in the Bible that Muslims often point to as prophecies of the coming of Muhammad: Deuteronomy 18:15-22 and John 16:5-11. First, in regards to Deuteronomy 18:15-22, the immediate context of this passage refers back to verses 9-14. Here Moses warns the people of the danger of false prophets. God's people are to avoid any and all who presume to speak authoritatively about spiritual truth apart from God’s truth. What is God’s truth? Verse 15 says a particular prophet will arise from the Jews (i.e., “your own brothers”) who will be like Moses. Notice that it's not just any prophet, as there have been many, but a special prophet. People who studied and believed the Old Testament writings were looking for this particular, special prophet. In fact, some Jewish leaders thought the fiery preacher John the Baptist might be the fulfillment of Moses' prophecy (see John 1:19-30). John the Baptist, however, said that he was the forerunner of the prophet of whom Moses spoke, not the prophet Himself. Who then is this prophet? He is clearly none other than the Lord Jesus Christ. John 1:43-45 records that the early followers of Jesus understood He was the prophet of whom Moses wrote. Jesus Himself declared this about Himself (Luke 24:27). The most complete statement pointing to Jesus as the promised prophet is found in Acts 3:12-26. The deacon, Stephen, reiterated this in Acts 7:37. Such notable men as John the Baptist, Philip, Peter, and Stephen all testified that Jesus Christ, not Muhammad, is the prophet predicted in Deuteronomy 18:15-22. Second, in John 16:5-11, Jesus prophesies that after He leaves, the Counselor will come, and this Counselor will “convict the world of guilt in regard to sin and righteousness and judgment” (John 16:8). Who is this Counselor? Jesus Himself gives the answer a few verses later in John 16:13, “But when he, the Spirit of truth, comes, he will guide you into all truth…” Jesus explicitly identifies the Counselor as the Holy Spirit. Jesus previously had used very similar terminology to predict the coming of the Holy Spirit, “But the Counselor, the Holy Spirit, whom the Father will send in my name…” (John 14:26). It is abundantly clear that the Counselor Jesus prophesied was the Holy Spirit, not Muhammad. In conclusion, the Bible nowhere specifically predicts the coming of Muhammad. Muhammad was not the prophet Moses predicted, and Muhammad was not the Counselor Jesus predicted. Since the message of Muhammad contradicts the message of Jesus on many points, the only biblical prophecy that would apply to the coming of Muhammad would be Matthew 24:11, “and many false prophets will appear and deceive many people…”

Answer 3

"Booth" picked up part of it, so I would like to expound on that. Five verses down, John refers to old and new commandments, which indicate that he is talking about the Jewish thought of being God's chosen people with all of its laws and customs dictating whether they are God's people or not. Guess what, election is not just for the Jews anymore. Election now involves (but is not defined as) the whole world! Christ died for all of God's elect, the sacrificial Lamb, and they are to look at the Gentiles with different eyes, under a new commandment of love rather than law as shown in verses 7 through 11 -- but with the same idea of what had always existed in the Old Testament, i.e. the heart, and the circumcision that is tied into this.

Kidd, this does show limited atonement, but the concept of being outside of Jewish culture alone, needed to be explained to the Jews. Look at the book of Hebrews, and the new covenant of baptism, just as much a covenant as circumcision was, but what's behind it? The HEART! As it has ALWAYS been! So when John talks from his heart to others' hearts, we see the same awesome, sovereign power of God, under the same "for God so loved the world" of John 3:16. It's a smaller "world" of course than the Arminians are thinking of, which at the very least leads to questions that are very difficult to answer, and at worst leads to universalism and everyone going to heaven. Not so, God is still sovereign, God makes the vessel the way he wants to make it. But the Elect, God's own, foreknown and predestined from before the foundations of the earth were laid, are secure in His hand, bought and paid for by His only begotten Son.

Answer 4

I certainly agree that the verse you mentioned states that Jesus died for the sins of the whole world. I could cite other verses, even the words of Jesus, to support that belief, but that would be preaching to the choir wouldn't it.

I wouldn't use the word "proof" but the idea that Jesus died for every person in the world is certainly consistent across authors in the New Testament. However, the verse you cited doesn't in any way preclude the possibility that, while everyone is eligible for atonement, it isn't automatic. I don't know why, but I do know that Jesus placed value on our need to accept the gift of forgiveness. Does this mean that the benefit of atonement is limited to those that that choose to acknowledge the gift (to "accept Jesus" or "believe in him"). I don't know and I don't think I'm supposed know...not my call bro!

Answer 5

I have never heard of the concept of a limited atonement. Unless by that you mean that only those who accept Jesus are actually saved, which I do believe.

I believe Jesus died as an atoning sacrifice for everyone, as the Bible says, and anyone and everyone who personally accepts Jesus as their Lord and Savior receives salvation through Jesus. That still leaves a whole lot of people out, unfortunately--everyone who refuses Christ.

If you are citing a distortion of Scripture that some religious group believes, would you please tell me which group it is? I have never heard of anyone believing that Jesus only died for some people and not others. Who believes that? And why?

Answer 6

There is a verse that says God is not willing that any should perish but that all should come to repentance 2 Peter 3:9 So it is understandable he died for all peoles sins but we know not ll people will or have come to repentance and he won't force them to. To be honest I am not really sure why you have suggested a restriction t the book of John as the practise of comparig scripture with scripture can be beneficial in bringing clarity.

Answer 7

Jesus' death on the cross could - theoretically - be 'applied' to every person that has ever lived and thus literally 'cover' the whole world of humanity. This would happen in practice if every person that has ever lived received the gift of forgiveness by faith. (Calm down, dear atheists - we know that just isn't going to happen.)

The context shows John addressing Christians who have exercised such faith. They believe Christ's sacrifice has worldwide application, for John also wrote (in his gospel) that Jesus is 'the Lamb of God who takes away the sin of the world'. The potential is there. Nobody who wants to receive God's forgiveness must be excluded. Yet John also said (in his gospel) that whoever BELIEVES in Christ shall be saved. Without belief (faith) the atonement sacrifice is not applied. Faith causes it to be applied. And, wondrously, God gives faith to those who ask him for it. So 1 Jn 2:2 does not teach universalism, but that God is an impartial God.

Answer 8

In monotheist Christian theology like Swedenborg, United Pentacostal, Unitarian Universalist, and Messianic Judaism, the Father, Son and Holy Spirit is like the soul, the body and the works in a single person.

I am a Swedenborgian myself and believe the monotheist trinity which is still trinity belief.

So the Father would not really be vengeful and wrathful and exact vengeance upon the Son, that would be God exchanging sin with Himself and being angry with Himself.

Anyway, perhaps the principle at work is the the Son asked the Father for forgiveness because people didn't know what they were doing. There was a reason to forgive, and the reason was that they didn't know what they were doing. Truth or Word was involved and Truth or Word asked for forgiveness of the Father or the Love of God. I suppose there is a lesson there.

The Christian church is deeper than people know about. I heartily recommend reading Swedenborg's Universal Theology of the New Jerusalem free on the web and sold over the web.

Answer 9

Jesus died on the cross for the atonement for ," anyone that believes in Me shall never parish, but have eternal life." John 3:16.

Jesus died on the cross for all of man kind.

Your statement and source is clear and correct.

Answer 10

Good question.

He is the sacrifice for the sins of the whole world, every person, but only a relatively few people actually believe and accept this, so only these few actually receive the effect of the atonement and Christ's righteousness imputed to them.

also one shouldn't base a teaching on a single verse but rather consider the full counsel of Scripture in context

Answer 11

Hello Kidd - Yes, this verse in itself does simply state that Jesus died for everyone. Now, it is OUR choice to accept that and declare that Jesus is our Lord and Savior.

Imagine this - Jesus went to the cross and was told by God that he would take all the worlds sins upon his own shoulders - essentially becoming sin and then at that point when he died sin was taken from us so that we could experience God's grace. From that point we have been given a choice to accept that truth or not.