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"Otztal Valley, Italy--The mainstream media reported widely on 'Otzi,' the 5,477-year-old Stone Age man found mummified in a melting glacier high in the Italian Tyrolean Alps. The U.S. media did not, however, share a gripping detail that was reported in Italy, Austria, Switzerland, and elsewhere: there was sperm in Otzi's anal canal. 'The Tyrolean scholars have not given this little detail any special significance,' according to Lambda Nachrichten, the magazine of Homosexual Initiative Vienna, Austria's leading gay organization, 'but there can only be one explanation: Otzi had sex with another man in the Alps!

whats your view?

2007-08-24 11:28:52 · 41 answers · asked by witchfinder general 3 in Society & Culture Religion & Spirituality

i think cavemen is pretty far back, more so than ancient greece.

2007-08-24 11:33:00 · update #1

yes i know, i know, just thought it was mildly amsuing. :P

2007-08-24 11:36:52 · update #2

41 answers

Thats freaking hilarious!!! I wish I had know that when we were studying him in 5th grade.

2007-08-24 11:31:50 · answer #1 · answered by geastietheghasta 3 · 1 2

I think that's not completely credible, it depends entirely on the state of Otzi's corpse. If his corpse was in an upright position or his bowel was perforated internally, any manner of mixing / displacement of bodily fluids is possible. Its possible that he was unable to ejaculate externally (this is a problem which could have resulted from spinal injury etc.) In combination with the unknown state of the rest of his lower vicera, it's just as likely.

Also, it's highly unlikely that bodily fluids could or would have been so well preserved over such a long timeframe.

Barring some genetic analysis, I suspect that the evidence is far from conclusive.

Furthermore, the distorted viewpoint regarding homosexuality is a western phenomenon, other cultures have taboos against certain activities and the taboo which encourage against homosexuality stems directly from the same set of societal taboos which encourage family and childrearing.

It's a VERY practical taboo set when you consider how difficult childrearing was in the past, with child mortality very high and the ability to support a family taking a larger amount of effort to raise. So as taboos go it's definitely something for which agrarian and ancient societies had compelling reason to support.

Having said that, the possibility that neolithic peoples had a cultural / religious / sex live that was more diverse than we know of is not at all surprising.

So perhaps Otzi was a rape victim , or perhaps he was a participant / celebrant in some ritual involving sexual rites involving all the adult sexually active tribe members or perhaps he had a same-sex life-partner or perhaps the guy who shot him, did one better after his death - it's unlikely we can know, given the evidence at hand.

It's a culture lost to us for the most part, we don't further our education by imposing our cultural judgments or wishes upon Mr. Otzi.

2007-08-24 11:48:05 · answer #2 · answered by Mark T 7 · 0 1

Of COURSE it predates the Bible--wouldn't it just be logical to assume that homosexuality has been around just as long as sex has?

Also, I'd like to comment on everyone who has said that "sin has always been around." Think for a second, and leave what the Bible says out of your thoughts--what is the real SIN behind homosexuality? Does it hurt anybody, like other sins such as wrath and greed? Absolutely not. They don't HARM anybody. People have killed because they are greedy, envious, wrathful, etc. People have BEEN killed because they are homosexual. You may argue that they are supposedly behind the spread of HIV/AIDS, but you would be wrong. It might be more prevalent among gays, but it doesn't mean they are responsible for the epidemic--you still have a chance of getting it from a heterosexual relationship, so that arguement has no foundation.

For those of you who believe it is a choice, where on Earth did you get that idea from? Does it say it in the Bible? Not to the best of my knowledge. You make up that fact to support your belief that it is wrong, because if it was anything OTHER than a choice, then you would have no place calling it a sin because it isn't anything within their control. It wouldn't be any more of a sin to be gay than to have blue eyes. But let me say this: I'm not gay myself, but having many friends who are, they'll tell you outright that it was not their choice and they don't know what caused it. Why would someone CHOOSE to undergo all that prejudice, all that hatred? Why would someone choose to not be able to have a "normal" marriage or family? If it WAS a choice, we wouldn't be here talking about it because homosexuality wouldn't exist.

One more thing: Just because it says it's wrong in the Bible doesn't make it wrong just because the Bible says so. There has always been prejudice against homosexuals, and the Bible is just another "God hates fags!" picket sign written by a HUMAN with their own prejudices. Why would God hate anybody? Instead of letting someone who wrote a book two thousand years ago make your decisions for you, let your HEART make your decisions. THAT is one source that won't be wrong.

2007-08-24 11:46:36 · answer #3 · answered by Anonymous · 1 0

While I do not disagree with you point about the body found (i did not see it but I would believe it) I would like to point out that the bible has been around for about 6,500 years. When i say the bible it was not the full bible but the old testament started about 6,500 years ago. The bible finished being written about 100 AD.
I would also agree that it is possible that the man had had sex with another male back then, this is also mentioned in the bible when it talks about Sodom and Gomorrah.
Suppose it just goes to show that the media can sometime lie not just by not telling the truth but also by not telling all the facts.

2007-08-24 11:41:22 · answer #4 · answered by darth72au 4 · 0 1

The Bible starts with the words "In the beginning" So, homosexual activity started before the world started? In the beginning God created.... so the Bible starts. Homosexual activity started before the earth that homosexuals love on was even formed ? I don't think so. PS 1.Did he die of AIDS? 2. Just because such a person supposedly had homosexual sex a long time ago still doesn't mean it's right and a good thing to do. It's wrong today, and it was wrong then.

2007-08-24 11:42:46 · answer #5 · answered by Anonymous · 1 1

Try some classical Greek literature for more obvious and numerous references.

Yes they date back further, but your evidance only implys that Otzi was penetrated by a man, it doesn't state that in his culture it was accepted. Some Greek literature actually explains different attitudes towards it in a time predating the new testament. I just think its funny to consider the Academic influence ancient Greek culture has had on the world, and how it was viewed in their society.

2007-08-24 11:31:44 · answer #6 · answered by Link , Padawan of Yoda 5 · 4 0

Yes, homosexuality predates the bible. A quick look at the writings of Socrates confirms this.

No, Otzi was not found with sperm in his rectum. The soft tissue of his pelvis was not preserved.

2007-08-24 11:48:52 · answer #7 · answered by marbledog 6 · 1 0

lol!!! answers is such a fun community!!!

of course...homosexuality predates the Bible...meaning homosexuality existed before the first biblical writers wrote their piece...we must understand that hundreds of years separate the different writers of the bible...

and although Otzi is an interesting find...shouldnt be that big deal about anal sex...isnt half of the world doing that?

2007-08-24 11:44:20 · answer #8 · answered by Anonymous · 0 1

Hmm. small flaw in your theory?
The Bible history goes back more than 7,000 years.
Nice try, play again soon.
Second flaw? Does not science say that stoneage ,men were a part of history much farther back than just 5,477 years? (more like according to science between 6,000 and 10,000 years ago)
If not, then are you challenging science and saying that human history is much shorter than science claims?

Why it is people continue to pursue the course of pushing the propaganda to bully the religious into the acceptance of homosexuality as being normal , is beyond me.

Why is it that those who continue to promote this concept, can not see the natural conclusion to their reasoning?
Once the homos are accepted (which they basically are by the government) how do you set a new demarcation saying that all sexual desire is not to be repressed?

Next step? Just look at Tijuana, with it's beastiality sex shows. Then consider, that if homosexuality is natural, and that they have the right to their conduct, that how can you deny the rapist, the child molester, the necropheliac, his and her natural 'rights'?

Yet, this is where we are heading. I though, will not try to stop it. Why? Because this is what is going to happen. It has been foretold, long ago. And here we are.
Yay gays!
Yay lesbo's!
You are right on time demanding your rights to practice your conduct. Yes, you will win. But not for long.

2007-08-24 11:35:01 · answer #9 · answered by Tim 47 7 · 3 4

Sperm dies and dissolves after about 48 hours. How could it have lasted over 5,000 years?

To the individual that talked about the ancient Greeks and Romans. Anacreon was from about 570 BC. The first books of the Bible were written about 1400BC. How is this earlier?

2007-08-24 11:34:27 · answer #10 · answered by 9_ladydi 5 · 3 2

I think it's an amusing story even though it's a joke. Does anybody really believe that such forensic evidence would be identifiable after 5000 years?

2007-08-24 11:48:29 · answer #11 · answered by Anonymous · 1 0

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