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B.A.'s believe in the bible and Catholics do as well. Both will quote Revelations saying "don't add or take away from this book" but one uses the traditional King James version while the other uses the apocrypha so doesn't that therefore proof that the point of the scripture in Revelations is just meant for the book of Revelations and not the entire bible

2007-08-23 19:30:48 · 14 answers · asked by ballatravis10 2 in Society & Culture Religion & Spirituality

14 answers

I tend to agree with that assessment.

2007-08-23 19:37:37 · answer #1 · answered by Shinigami 7 · 0 0

The Bible contains 5-6 dozens books written by over 40 authors, depending on whose version you read. The difference between the two is called the Apocrypha, which are a dozen or so many books written by minor prophets and not deemed necessary for an eschatological dogma, according to the Protestants.

The Book of Revelations is the final book in the Bible and the phrase cited pertains to that book, and not the entire Bible.

Peace be with you.

2007-08-23 19:42:37 · answer #2 · answered by Arf Bee 6 · 1 1

Its not the heavens opened up one day and the KJV came out. Hehehee the KJV wasn't first published until 1612. And the bible as a whole not until the 4th century.

363CE the Council of Laodicea named 26 New Testament books as "inspired word of God"; Book of Revelation is excluded, one reason cited was 'sometimes a dream is ONLY a dream'

Hehehee people have been translating and revising the scriptures for centuries, each one being CLAIMED to be correct. Unfortunately, no one can really be sure, since all based upon translations and the originals were all said to be lost in the 4th century shortly after the vulgate came out.

It is kinda a mute point though, since according to the scriptures, it says that god confused the WORD at the Tower of Babel.

2007-08-23 19:53:37 · answer #3 · answered by Lion Jester 5 · 0 0

There is some misinformation in your question itself:

1) The "traditional" King James of 1611 includes all the books in the Roman Catholic (RC) canon plus two additional books (1 and 2 Esdras).

2) Certainly, this proves no such thing. What it proves is that at least one "side" is mistaken about what books are inspired by God and what books aren't.

Nevertheless, *your* mistaken conclusion does not undermine the validity of your claim that the verse in Revelation (Rev) is referring only to the book of Rev, since when it was written Rev was not included with any other books. *That* is the proof that this verse refers only to Rev.

Jim, www life-after-harry-potter com

2007-08-24 09:23:47 · answer #4 · answered by JimPettis 5 · 0 0

The Catholic Bible is the orginal Bible. Martin Luther removed some books which later became the apocrypha. The Bible came from the Catholic Church. Let us not forget that.

Catholic and Protestant Bibles both include 27 books in the New Testament. Protestant Bibles have only 39 books in the Old Testament, however, while Catholic Bibles have 46. The seven books included in Catholic Bibles are Tobit, Judith, 1 and 2 Maccabees, Wisdom, Sirach, and Baruch. Catholic Bibles also include sections in the Books of Esther and Daniel which are not found in Protestant Bibles. These books are called the deuterocanonical books. The Catholic Church considers these books to be inspired by the Holy Spirit.

2007-08-23 19:37:11 · answer #5 · answered by Anonymous · 2 2

The Catholic Bible Canon has not changed ever since it was developed - more than 1500 years BEFORE the King James Version came along. It is the King James Version that is has "taken away" from Scripture.

2007-08-24 01:57:27 · answer #6 · answered by Daver 7 · 0 0

Not at all. There are similar references elsewhere. Israel's kings had to make two copies of the Torah (the first five books of the Bible) and read it every day. If you're reading Revelation, you are jumping into one of the more difficult books of the Bible. If you're a beginner (albeit a very brave and earnest one), you might try Luke as a first book.

2007-08-23 19:39:34 · answer #7 · answered by Anonymous · 0 0

No. It's just that when our country (USA) was being established, the books of the Apocrypha was left out due to the fact of what is written about America (the Eagle) that would give cause to the colonist or earlier Americans reason to doubt what they believed to be a great country and decision to stay and settle.

2007-08-23 19:45:21 · answer #8 · answered by Dustaflyin 1 · 0 1

Revelation only.

Revelation was a late addition to the canon... the primary reason it was first considered for the canon was that John was the author. Martin Luther even considered removing it from the Protestant Canon when the Protestants Revolted against the Catholic Church.

2007-08-23 19:37:48 · answer #9 · answered by SDW 6 · 3 0

BA's believe the Bible; Catholics believe the pope, the church, tradition, saints, visions, ..., then the Bible.

The verse you quote from Revelation is also in Deuteronomy and refers to the specific passage it's in, not in our 66-book (or 66+apocrypha book) Bible.

The KJV originally included the apocrypha so I don't get your point.

2007-08-23 19:39:31 · answer #10 · answered by Craig R 6 · 0 3

Of course it means for that book only. Naughty, naughty, those Christians who despite the warning added the rest of their bible to the book of revelation.

2007-08-23 19:36:28 · answer #11 · answered by Anonymous · 1 0

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