π + x + e = ±(π + √2 + e)
x = √2 or x = -√2 -2(π + e)
2007-08-22 09:03:20
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answer #1
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answered by sahsjing 7
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Hey there!
We can find the first answer. Note that the two equations are exactly equal to each other. Since they are equal, i.e. Ï=Ï, x=sqrt(2) and e=e.
So x=sqrt(2).
However, the answer can be proved by using the quadratic formula.
Using the quadratic formula, you get two solutions, x=sqrt(2) and x=-sqrt(2)-e-Ï.
Hope it helps!
2007-08-22 18:51:18
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answer #2
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answered by ? 6
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x = â2 or -â2 - 2Ï - 2e
You can see that the left side matches the right side exactly, except that x is replaced by â2. This means that x = â2 must be a solution. x = -â2 - 2Ï - 2e is also a solution because it would make the left side equal to (-Ï - â2 - e)^2, which has the same value as (Ï + â2 + e)^2 since (-1)^2 = 1.
2007-08-22 16:02:06
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answer #3
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answered by DavidK93 7
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First off, x just replaces the square root of two
So you can ignore the left half of the equation, since you already know that x = the square root of two
Now, pi approximates to 3.1415926 (count the letters in "how I need a drink, alcoholic of course"), e is about 2.71828183, and the square root of two is about 1.41421356. Add them all together, and you get 7.27408799 , and square it, and you get about 52.91
2007-08-22 16:14:08
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answer #4
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answered by Just Jess 7
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(Ï + x + e)² = (Ï + â2 + e)²?
39
2007-08-22 16:01:52
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answer #5
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answered by god knows and sees else Yahoo 6
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Shoe polish
2007-08-22 16:04:47
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answer #6
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answered by Sean Thornton 1
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Could this be homework??
2007-08-22 16:08:31
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answer #7
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answered by ladyfirefighterfd13 3
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