In some states in the United States they still enforce the Napoleonic law of property. In NC and LA, a woman may have her name on a deed but in order to transfer property, she must have spousal or male family member permission to do so. This makes her little more than the property she is trying to transfer. Your thoughts on the matter. Should a woman have to ask permission to sell what is rightfully hers (and no comments on prostitution, okay, this is a legitimate question)?
2007-08-22 04:26:36 · 6 answers · asked by momatad 4 in Politics & Government ➔ Law & Ethics
Having worked in insurance and written binders of insurance coverage when property is sold, I do know in the state I now reside in, that if only one party's name is on the deed, only that party needs to be part of the deal, not the spouse (in fact I know of a fairly weathy individual who buys and sells real estate for his girlfriend and his accounts are flagged NOT to tell the spouse). Not necessarily ethical, but I don't think it is illegal.
2007-08-23 04:00:33 · update #1
I had never heard of this. Thanks for pointing it out. You would think Utah would have the same type of laws.
2007-08-22 09:01:45 · answer #1 · answered by Chief Yellow Horse 4 · 0⤊ 1⤋
Louisiana is the only state that gets it's laws directly from the Napoleonic Code.
In all states, a married person (man or woman) must have his or her spouse sign in order to transfer property. This is not so much to seek the "approval" of the other spouse as it is to make sure he or she is not cheated out of his/her interest in it.
2007-08-22 15:55:15 · answer #2 · answered by BR 6 · 0⤊ 1⤋
What does Napoleonic Law say about a Pedophile {male) who molest little girls?
2017-01-14 15:47:46 · answer #3 · answered by Laura Taff 1 · 0⤊ 0⤋
Every state has the Constitutional right to enact any laws they see fit to govern their said land and their citizens. If women in these particular states are upset with the laws, they need to fight to have them changed. I can only imagine as well on appeal, the Federal gov. would overturn such a law due to the fact they have a different set of standards. But we as separate states do not want federal interference in every aspect do we?
2007-08-26 13:41:10 · answer #4 · answered by Rhode Island Red 5 · 0⤊ 1⤋
when trying a pedophile cause,does la USE nAPOLEONIC LAWS ??
2014-07-16 22:58:41 · answer #5 · answered by laurataff@sbcglobal.net 1 · 0⤊ 0⤋
If it just belongs to her then no she should not have to.
2007-08-29 22:19:57 · answer #6 · answered by PEACE 5 · 0⤊ 0⤋