Was Mary sinless?

Question

I mean it's possible.

Does it actually say in the Bible that Jesus was the only ever sinless human being, and if so, please give me a quote. Also if she was sinless, maybe God didn't use her to die for the sins of all mankind because of the mere fact that she was a female, and so not naturally as strong as Jesus.

Answer 1

Mary was not sinless and in no way played a part in the redemption of mankind.

(Rom 3:23 KJV) For all have sinned, and come short of the glory of God.God is not saying some or a few or even the majority, He is definite in His usage of "ALL." This means that Mary was part of that "all."
The reason Jesus was qualified to be the Lamb was because He is fully God. No mere human could atone for our sin.
Mary herself called the Lord her Savior- "And my spirit hath rejoiced in God my Savior".
Mary was not rejected as Mediator because of her sex. She could not because Jesus is the ONLY mediator between the Father and mankind. He ALONE is qualified.
(1 Tim 2:5 KJV) For there is one God, and one mediator between God and men, the man Christ Jesus.
Read your Bible and know the truth.

Answer 2

The Bible nowhere describes Mary as anything but an ordinary human female whom God chose to be the mother of the Lord Jesus Christ. Mary was undoubtedly a godly woman (Luke 1:28). Mary was surely a wonderful wife and mother. Jesus definitely loved and cherished His mother (John 19:27). The Bible gives us no reason to believe that Mary was sinless. In fact, the Bible gives us every reason to believe that Jesus Christ is the only Person who was not “infected” by sin and never committed a sin (Ecclesiastes 7:20; Romans 3:23; 2 Corinthians 5:21; 1 Peter 2:22; 1 John 3:5).

Answer 3

Nowhere does the Bible state that Mary was sinless or the exception to sin be passed on from each generation.

Mary CONCEIVED without sin. The angel Gabriel said, "Hail, full of grace, the Lord is with you" (Luke 1:28). The phrase "full of grace" is a translation of the Greek word kecharitomene. It merely expresses the character of Mary. In fact , the grace bestowed upon Mary is at once permanent and of a unique kind. Kecharitomene is a perfect passive participle of charitoo, meaning "to fill or endow with sanctifying grace." Since this term is in the perfect tense, it indicates that Mary was graced in the PAST but with continuing effects in the PRESENT. So, the grace Mary enjoyed was not a result of the angel’s visit. In fact, many believe, it extended over the whole of her life, from conception onward.

Is a sinless Jesus possible? Yes, it is possible. Jesus not only could, but did live his whole life without sin. 1 Peter 2:22 says, "He committed no sin, and no deceit was found in his mouth." 1 John 3:5 says, ". . . And in him is no sin." Then in John chapter 8 Jesus said of himself, "Yet because I tell the truth, you do not believe me! Can any of you prove me guilty of sin? If I am telling the truth, why don't you believe me? He who belongs to God hears what God says. . ."

Answer 4

Jesus is the God
You said Mary maybe God didn't use her to die for the sins of all mankind because of the.......
That mean you not read the Bible at all.
About St Mary No sin mention in the history of her
The Father chose her and the Holy Spirit shadow her.

Answer 5

The bible uniquely describes Mary as the vessel to which Christ enters the world as a human being rather then a diety. Mary was the son of man and therefore inheritly born with the burden of sin, this concept reachs far back as Genesis. The simple fact of the matter is Jesus was sinless because he wasn't born of mans creation, he was born of immaculate conception through the hand of God. This I think is why catholisism has trouble making the distinction of actual dietaity and those simply chosen to carry out Gods plan.

Answer 6

Mary replaced into sinless, while she made her offering that replaced into the custom. She replaced right into a Jew and observed the guidelines. So like various different maiden in that element she could additionally do the comparable. and of direction she replaced into sinless. in case you examine Anne Cathrine Emerick's e book or Venerable Mary of Agreda's e book you may comprehend how incredibly organic and freed from sin she replaced into. God chosen Mary earlier she exsisted. And while she replaced into right here she on no account suggested NO to God. She on no account suggested no to her father and mom the two.

Answer 7

Yes it says Jesus having no sin died on our behalf to shield us from the punishment we deserved. And no Mary was not sinless. Read Women of the Bible (do not recall the author) and you will find all kinds of "colorful" women in the generations proceeding before and up to the immaculate conception of Mary-mother of Jesus.

Answer 8

That depends...if you're Catholic, then yes, Mary was sinless.

If you're a Protestant, then you should've been hard-core taught that Mary wasn't sinless.

Personally, I believe that if God, being the ultimate being, wanted the mother of Christ to be sinless, then she was sinless. Examine your own beliefs, and find what fits best for you!

Answer 9

"Hail Mary full of grace, the lord is with you. Blessed art thou amongst women and blessed is the fruit of thy womb, Jesus. Holy Mary, mother of God pray for us sinners now and at the hour of our death."

I would say that Mary was in fact sinless. She was after all "full of grace". Protestants will disagree with this usually though.

Answer 10

By the grace of God and only by the grace of God was Mary preserved from sin. As explained above, the angel addressed her as one "who had received the fullness of sanctifying grace."

At the time the angel spoke to her, Mary had already received the fullness of Grace and the complete absolution and protection of sin through our Lord Jesus Christ. Yes, Mary needed a Savior, but she was blessed and received His grace at the beginning of her life instead of at the end of it. And the phrase used by the angel in the Bible proves it.