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Just wondering cause someone told me it said that.

2007-08-20 15:35:45 · 16 answers · asked by Anonymous in Society & Culture Religion & Spirituality

Does it say it anywhere in the New Testament?

2007-08-20 15:55:19 · update #1

16 answers

It doesn't. Though some translators have interpeted the scriptures that way, and is reflected thus in some translations or revisions of the bible.

One of the most used verses are those in Leviticus "no man shall with another man, as like a woman". Which first off is an absurdity, since a man doesn't have a vagina---or are they trying to say that anal sex between a man and a woman is the norm?!? Secondly, if one ACTUALLY reads the Leviticus Covanent, one FIRST has to offer up a Peace Offering as a sacrifice just to enter into the covanent AND has to uphold each and every tenent in Leviticus to remain a part of it.

If ya don't swear to uphold a covanent a person cannot be guilty of sin. To sin is ONLY trangressions of Laws that you have sworn to you god(s) to uphold. One reason that sinners are depicted as so vile in the OT. If a sinner is willing to LIE and DEFY their OWN god(s)---nothing is really sacred to them.


In the other OT covanents, the prohibition is only upon in engaging in sex with 'temple virgins' like those of the canaanite goddess Anath---also referred to in Romans by Paul.

Another common verse used to condemn homosexuality is 1 Corinthians 6:9, where homosexuals are listed in a list of people that don't go to heaven by Paul. First off in neither the old greek nor in the hebrew aramic used prior to the 3rd century AD is there a term that meant homosexual. They didn't have such a concept. Granted, there are hundreds of terms that described 'homosexual acts' but not a term that meant HOMOSEXUAL. Always be leery of any translation that uses the term homosexual, the translators are INSERTING prejudgments into the scriptures.

There is one verse that might be used to SUPPORT homosexuality. In 1 Samual 18, there is the 'gay marriage' between David and Jonathan. All of the qualifying factors are present that defined marriage at the time period...the loving, the merging of souls, the vows or covanent between, and from the text we also have the cleving aspect.

Some people say NO, they were homos, just 'good friends'. Though I haven't heard of alot of SPECIAL friends that strip naked in front of another guy, professing their UNDYING love, and the guy goes home with him---and it NOT be sexual in nature.

2007-08-20 16:03:30 · answer #1 · answered by Lion Jester 5 · 1 1

The texts cited by others above pretty much exhaust the biblical material on homosexuality. Although, the Genesis story of Sodom and Gomorrah has more to do with inhospitality than it does with homosexualtiy or sexuality at all. Lot offered up his daughters to be gang raped afterall, and he escaped with his life because he was righteous. Kind of sick really.

The Levitical texts are not ambiguous, they do condemn sexual acts between men. However, many of the in the prohibitions in the surrounding passages and in the book of Lev. as a whole (not shaving the edges of one's beard, not having sex during menstruation, stoning obstinate children and adulterers to death, not allowing disfigured persons to be priests, etc.) are not followed today. If a person is going to appeal to the Lev. texts to condemn homosexuality, then they must adhere to the total corpus, not just parts.

As for the Pauline literature, there is much ambiguity. The main point of contention here is that no one knows what the words mean that many early English translations and some more recent ones render 'homosexual' or 'sodomy.' The greek words 'arsenokoitai' and 'malakoi' are rare, particularly the former. Additionally, these words appear only in lists (although, malakoi appears outside some lists, but takes on many meanings, some outside those of sexual behavior). It is nearly impossible to nail down a translation of a word that appears only in lists. The words most likely refer to some sort of sexual behavior (pedophilia, male prostitution, male on male rape, behaving like a female - which, consequently, in the first century would have included doing housework, taking primary responsibility for the children, crying in public, etc.)

At the end of the day, to say that the Bible is clear on its stance against homosexuality is at best misinformed and at worst cruel and bigoted. Paul may have been against homosexual acts, but we cannot be sure if he meant only abusive, aggressive acts, or if he also meant to include those that take place in the confines of a loving, respectful relationship.

Hope that helps a bit.

2007-08-20 16:07:42 · answer #2 · answered by Tukiki 3 · 0 0

The Bible clearly and consistently tells us that homosexual activity is a sin (Genesis 19:1-13; Leviticus 18:22; Romans 1:26-27; 1 Corinthians 6:9). God does not create a person with homosexual desires. A person becomes a homosexual because of sin (Romans 1:24-27), and ultimately because of his or her own choice.

2007-08-20 15:43:45 · answer #3 · answered by Freedom 7 · 2 0

Romans 1:26-27

2016-05-18 05:49:10 · answer #4 · answered by malisa 3 · 0 0

Romans 1:24-32
Leviticus 18:22 and 20:13

2007-08-21 20:31:41 · answer #5 · answered by Anonymous · 0 0

In Genesis Chapters 18 and 19, we witness the account of Sodom and Gomorrah's destruction due to their sexual perversion. In this account, Lot, the nephew of Abraham, is living in Sodom. Two angels travel to Sodom and after being invited into Lot's house for the night, the house is surrounded by "all the men from every part of the city of Sodom-both young and old… ""They called to Lot, 'Where are the men who came to you tonight? Bring them out to us so that we can have sex with them.'"
God never singled out and destroyed any other cities in this manner. The sin of homosexuality was so offensive to God that He annihilated both cities and everyone in them.

The Book of Leviticus is where God laid down His laws to the Israelites. Homosexuality is addressed in both Leviticus 18:22 and 20:13.

Leviticus 18:22:
"You shall not lie with a male as one lies with a female; it is an abomination."

Leviticus 20:13
"If there is a man who lies with a male as those who lie with a woman, both of them have committed a detestable act; they shall surely be put to death. Their bloodguiltiness is upon them."

Here God is clearly telling the Israelites that homosexuals are so detestable and an abomination to Him that they should be put to death and that their guilt is on their own shoulders.

2007-08-20 15:42:07 · answer #6 · answered by just2beemee 1 · 4 0

It says many times....

Leviticus18:22

"You sall not lie with a male as with a woman; it is an abomination."

Leviticus 20:13

"If a man lies with a male as with a woman, both of them have committed an abomination; they shall surely be put to death; their blood is upon them."

Deuteronomy 22:5 (crossdressing)

"A woman shall not wear a man's garment, nor shall a man put on a woman's cloak for whoever does these thins is an abomination to the Lord your God."

And Galatians 6:18 discusses particular sins and how whoever committs those things won't inherit the kingdom of God and the first mentioned is sexual immorality.

2007-08-20 15:42:57 · answer #7 · answered by spinelli 4 · 1 0

Romans 1:24-28 refers to homosexuality as an "unnatural sin", it's also mentioned somewhere in 1 Corinthians 6, I think.

2007-08-20 15:41:01 · answer #8 · answered by Joy 3 · 3 1

Leviticus Chapters 18 and 20.

2007-08-20 15:41:23 · answer #9 · answered by Anonymous · 2 1

Leviticus and the sin of Sodom and Gomorrah was homosexuality since they wanted to have sex with the men and they were all men. Also, check out Romans.

2007-08-20 15:43:23 · answer #10 · answered by Jeff E 4 · 2 0

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