How can you read "I appeared to Abraham, to Issac, and to Jacob, as "God Almighty", but by My name Lord (a.k.a. YHWH/Jehovah/I AM) I was not known to them?
How is it possible to argue that Christ was not the Hebrew "God Almighty" before he asked to be called Lord/YHWH/Jehovah/ I AM?
2007-08-20 05:32:38 · 5 answers · asked by mouthbreather77 1 in Society & Culture ➔ Religion & Spirituality
OOPS EXODUS 6:3
2007-08-20 05:48:54 · update #1
This so-called "question" grossly misrepresents the passage in question. It seems impossible to note that the speaker is Jehovah, and in fact the original Hebrew here uses the Tetragrammaton (the Hebrew characters translated into English as "Jehovah").
The full text of Exodus 6:1,3 from several popular translations makes it clear that it is Jehovah God the Father speaking.
KJV: Then the LORD said unto Moses, Now shalt thou see what I will do to Pharaoh: for with a strong hand shall he let them go, and with a strong hand shall he drive them out of his land. ...And I appeared unto Abraham, unto Isaac, and unto Jacob, by the name of God Almighty, but by my name JEHOVAH was I not known to them.
ASV: And Jehovah said unto Moses, Now shalt thou see what I will do to Pharaoh: for by a strong hand shall he let them go, and by a strong hand shall he drive them out of his land. ...and I appeared unto Abraham, unto Isaac, and unto Jacob, as God Almighty; but by my name Jehovah I was not known to them.
DBY: And Jehovah said to Moses, Now shalt thou see what I will do to Pharaoh; for by a strong hand shall he let them go, and by a strong hand shall he drive them out of his land. ...And I appeared unto Abraham, unto Isaac, and unto Jacob, as the Almighty God; but by my name Jehovah I was not made known to them.
YLT: And Jehovah saith unto Moses, 'Now dost thou see that which I do to Pharaoh, for with a strong hand he doth send them away, yea, with a strong hand he doth cast them out of his land.' ...and I appear unto Abraham, unto Isaac, and unto Jacob, as God Almighty; as to My name Jehovah, I have not been known to them;
Learn more:
http://watchtower.org/e/ti/index.htm?article=article_05.htm
2007-08-23 09:13:25 · answer #1 · answered by achtung_heiss 7 · 1⤊ 0⤋
Where in the context does it say that CHRIST is the one talking at Ex. 6:1?
A common misconception is that GOD (NOT CHRIST), when speaking to Moses via the burning bush said the famous quote: "I AM". Trinitarians attempt to match this so-called 'same' usage of Ex. 3:14 to John 8:58 to try and show that Jesus is God.
However, actual research will show that ehyeh (a form of the verb "to be" or hayah in OT manuscripts), the word translated as "I Am" at Ex. 3:14, is in reality, intended as "I Will Be" not "I Am".
Even the TRINITARIAN Today's Dictionary of the Bible, 1982, Bethany House, pp. 330-331, admits of Ex. 3:14 -
"It has been rendered, `I WILL BE that I WILL BE' as an indication of God's sovereignty and immutability" and "the translation ... that probably comes closest to the intention of God at this point is, `I will be there'."
So God did not say that his name was 'I Am' at Ex. 3:14. He didn't even say that the meaning of his name (which is what he was actually explaining) was 'I Am' but, instead 'I Will Be'. Therefore, Jesus' saying "I am" at John 8:58 was also obviously not used as a name (as context shows). But even if it were being so used, it would still not be God's name.
2007-08-20 05:48:08 · answer #2 · answered by tik_of_totg 3 · 4⤊ 0⤋
Several chapters back it shows it is Jesus (the Angel of Jehovah) that is speaking. He is a messenger of Jehovah who is relating God's words to Moses.
Exd 3:2 And the Angel of Jehovah appeared to him in a flame of fire out of the midst of a thorn-bush:
Trinitarians seem to confuse this with God even though it says a messenger of God. Other passages also show that it is God's words not Jesus. Jesus is only the messenger.
Jesus said: "...and that I do nothing on my own, but I speak these things as the Father instructed me." John 8:28
2007-08-20 07:13:49 · answer #3 · answered by keiichi 6 · 6⤊ 0⤋
Where do you get the idea this was Christ speaking?
Exodus 6:1-3 reads: "So Jehovah said to Moses: “Now you will see what I shall do to Phar′aoh, because on account of a strong hand he will send them away and on account of a strong hand he will drive them out of his land.”
And God went on to speak to Moses and to say to him: “I am Jehovah. And I used to appear to Abraham, Isaac and Jacob as God Almighty, but as respects my name Jehovah I did not make myself known to them." (NWT)
I read nothing here about Christ.
2007-08-20 05:45:34 · answer #4 · answered by Abdijah 7 · 5⤊ 0⤋
Ask that to the JW's other non-JW's might give you a biased answer
2007-08-20 05:40:37 · answer #5 · answered by Samantha 3 · 1⤊ 0⤋