there was no "J" alphebet in the era and after most the era of Jesus(PBUH), then what he used to be called by the people and how was the name derived ? do u have any explanations for this ?
2007-08-19 18:51:30 · 10 answers · asked by Jazzmyn 2 in Society & Culture ➔ Religion & Spirituality
This is from a web site(see link below):
Jesus is a correct and accurate rendering of the Hebrew Jeh-yesha and the associated names Jeh-oshea, Jehoshua, and JehShua(s). The Iesous spelling in Greek is a Jewish name not a Greek name. On the cross the name Jesus was written in Hebrew as IEHSHAS, in Greek as IESOUS, in Latin as IESUS. The IESOUS spelling is found in the 280BC Septuagint Greek version of Jewish Scriptures (In Greek there is no "sh" sound so the "h" is omitted). Hope this helps!
2007-08-19 19:01:41 · answer #1 · answered by nicky 3 · 1⤊ 0⤋
if i am not wrong . he is known as yehusua , and den yeshua and finally jesus in english.
Jesus is modern english name =)
eternal actually is also derive from the greek word aionos / aions which actually means pertaining to age , which meant extremely long duration.
hell in some christians is believe not to be forever because the original text meant pertaining to age , and not forever.
there are better word to be used for Forever , instead the meaning got lost when it is translated to an old english world ece which meant forever.
now how many christians actually studied hebrew and greek to actually interpret the true bible?
english bible is subjected to mistake . there are typos which is obvious in the bible. interpretation also lost the actual meaning in some case , simply adding alone gives u a new meaning to the original verse.
some christians do agree that if the bible is written by Atheist , it would be more accurate .
2007-08-20 01:57:13 · answer #2 · answered by Curious 3 · 2⤊ 0⤋
This may come as a bit of a shock but they didn't use the English Language or the English Alphabet.
I believe the local language was Aramaic so perhaps they manged quite well with that.
2007-08-20 02:22:34 · answer #3 · answered by brainstorm 7 · 0⤊ 0⤋
since we both know that Arabic and Hebrew alphabets must be TRANSLITERATED ( I hope you know that ) then the J means very little. YahShua is Jesus's Hebrew name. Isa ( as Muslims insist is the name for Jesus ) is the name Esau. This is just one of many mistakes passed down from Mohammad to his militant band of religious mercenaries in the 7th century AD
2007-08-20 01:59:26 · answer #4 · answered by Anonymous · 2⤊ 0⤋
His name was Y'shua (modern day Joshua). When Christianity became Greco-Romanized, it was changed to Jesus. It wasn't spelled with a "J" until it became an English word, probably around 1100 or 1200 A.D.
2007-08-20 02:09:55 · answer #5 · answered by Anonymous · 1⤊ 0⤋
In addition to what others have said (Yeshua), you will also find the spelling Iesus in Latin texts.
2007-08-20 01:59:02 · answer #6 · answered by Anonymous · 2⤊ 0⤋
How come in my English Bible it says "James" but in my Spanish Bible it says "Santiago" - names are modified through time and there have been several centuries of linguistic evolution since those times. It does not prove or disprove any belief over such questions of semantics.
2007-08-20 01:57:57 · answer #7 · answered by buscadora78 2 · 0⤊ 2⤋
it was yeshua the greek equivelant to yeshua is jesus or joshua
2007-08-20 01:56:24 · answer #8 · answered by Anonymous · 2⤊ 0⤋
"Yeshua" that is Jesus in his original language
2007-08-20 01:58:03 · answer #9 · answered by Anonymous · 3⤊ 0⤋
"Yeshua" that is Jesus in his original language
-peace in christ-
2007-08-20 01:55:32 · answer #10 · answered by Seth B 2 · 7⤊ 0⤋