I have heard the gnostic explination which makes at least some sense but how do christians try to rectify this obviously unrectifyable situation? If any statement in the bible says "I am not god, I am just a man" this is it.
2007-08-19 18:49:17 · 26 answers · asked by Pauls Imaginary Friend 2 in Society & Culture ➔ Religion & Spirituality
Eli, Eli, lama sabachthani?
there better
The Psalms thing is complete bunk, yet another thing written into the bible afterwards to make jesus more "special"
like John 7: 53 - 8: 11 and the last 12 verse of mark.
2007-08-19 19:00:02 · update #1
Yggdrasil Mithos-I have always heard he said this as the aeon (sp)? left him, thats the gnostic version I have always heard.
2007-08-19 19:02:47 · update #2
When I was a person of faith this was one of many passages that convinced me that Jesus did not believe himself to be God. The bizarre concept of the Trinity has always struck me as absurd.
2007-08-19 19:01:03 · answer #1 · answered by Anonymous · 1⤊ 2⤋
Jesus isn't God and never claimed to be
The true God and Jesus are 2 separate being.
In John 17:6,26 Jesus says that he made known his Father's name. What name? Psalms 83:18 and Isaiah 26:4 in the King James Bible will tell you what his Father's name is.
At John 20:17 Jesus says he was ascending to his Father and our Father, and to his God and to our God. Two distinct beings.
The belief of Jesus being God was never a belief of the first century Christians. This doctrine was started in the 3rd Century when it was adopted from pagan religions by the Catholic Church.
Do some research on the Trinity and you will find this out.
2007-08-19 20:48:33 · answer #2 · answered by CURIOUS IN STOCKTON 3 · 0⤊ 0⤋
Try to remember that many of those who sat on the Sanhedrin were very familiar with the writings of the prophets....(Gamil is said to have been able to recite entire books!)
Jesus was quoting from the prophets.
If I said "Four score and seven years ago..." most in the audience would know two things 1) who I am quoting, and 2) the speech it comes from. Same would go for "We have nothing to fear, but fear itself" or "ask not what your country can do for you, but what you can do for your country."
To automatically attribute this to a confession that He is not God, well, it can be seen that way...but it is not the ABSOLUTE proof as you put forth.
2007-08-19 19:00:43 · answer #3 · answered by Last Stand 2010 4 · 1⤊ 0⤋
It is these words that usher mortals into a higher understanding of Christ. This was Jesus' (the man) last battle with the belief in the man of flesh, therefore in these words He opened the door for all. Human eyes never saw the Christ, but did see Jesus. He was endowed with the Christ, so we could find our way. The flesh of Jesus (to mortal senses) was not God, but the eternal Christ, Truth, is God.
2007-08-19 20:36:32 · answer #4 · answered by ? 6 · 0⤊ 0⤋
You know there is a lot of feelings of sorrow regarding Christ dieing on the cross but as with so many of us we forget the good meaning that Jesus had a fabulous view of the Jeruselum on top of a hill and he was finally able to look down on people so don't go feeling sorry for Jesus
2007-08-19 19:02:28 · answer #5 · answered by Mary T 2 · 1⤊ 0⤋
That was a cry to his father due to pain.
Acts2:27,31&32 God rasied Jesus from hell.His can not lead anyone with logic that God and Jesus are a part of a trinity.
The only way they are one is as a team like a football team .
2007-08-19 18:56:34 · answer #6 · answered by pestie58 the spider hunter 6 · 0⤊ 0⤋
Some of these answers are bizarre, but Christ had to experience everthing we may experience in our lives including feelings of fear and loneliness. He accepted the responsibility of atoning for our sins and it was required that he fulfill the responsibility alone. No one could help him, not even our Father In Heaven.(I do not believe God and Jesus are the same person.) This verse demonstrates that he did experience those feelings and was able to bear them. His example shows us that we too can bear the trails that we will face in our lives no matter how difficult they may seem.
2007-08-19 19:21:11 · answer #7 · answered by rndyh77 6 · 0⤊ 0⤋
He was quoting Scripture. (Psalm 22)
The audience of His crucifixion were mostly priests. They knew the holy writings by memory. By stating the first line of the passage, he was reminding them of the prophetic message in the rest of the psalm. He was, in essence, stating to them, "once more, here is proof that I am the Messiah."
2007-08-19 18:59:58 · answer #8 · answered by Jim K 4 · 0⤊ 0⤋
It's because when he was sacrificed, all of our sins were put to him, so he went to hell and back, as said in the Apostles Creed, but he had so much of our sin that God couldn't even look at him and turned his back on him. But by resurrecting, he conquered death.
2007-08-19 19:43:58 · answer #9 · answered by asymmetricroom 3 · 0⤊ 0⤋
I think people have been taught for so long that he willingly died for our sins. And yet, right there on the cross he asked God why he had been forsaken. Tells me that he didn't know he was supposed to be dying for our sins and he was very scared and upset that he was being put to death and his father wasn't willing to do anything about it.
2007-08-19 18:55:40 · answer #10 · answered by QWERTY 6 · 0⤊ 1⤋