2007-08-19 15:39:46 · 13 answers · asked by Kiril 2 in Society & Culture ➔ Religion & Spirituality
Was there ever a pagan king of England?
2007-08-19 15:42:37 · answer #1 · answered by wefmeister 7 · 2⤊ 1⤋
From the middle of the seventeenth century, the King's Bible has been the acknowledged Bible of the English-speaking nations throughout the world simply because it is the best. A revision which embodied the ripe fruits of nearly a century of labor, and appealed to the religious instinct of a great Christian people, gained by its own internal character a vital authority which could never have been secured by any edict of sovereign rulers.
God alone, again working by His Spirit, through men, has provided us with this laborious work, revealing His Son.
Sadly, and especially on this forum they use it to wipe on.
2007-08-19 23:05:19 · answer #2 · answered by Notfooled 4 · 0⤊ 0⤋
YES! the real problem is that a lot of ministers act like KJV is the ONLY Bible. I'll BET God never spoke in the Shakesperian dialect. Example I read a passage where it said "MY BOWELS WERE MOVDED FOR YOU" Boy our English has changed HOWEVER, The Bible was originally whitten in the HEBREW and the GREEK! and guess what those languages have not CHANGED!
2007-08-19 22:58:31 · answer #3 · answered by hamoh10 5 · 0⤊ 0⤋
Excuse me, but as a student of Tudor/Elizabethan/ late english renaissance history, I must correct you. King James I & VI (or VI & I, if you're looking at it from the Scottish viewpoint) succeeded to the english throne upon the death of Elizabeth I. Having been raised in Scotland, he was brought up in the Lutheran version of Protestantism, which was introduced to Scotland almost singlehandedly by John Knox. Sadly, because of the troubles suffered by his mother, Mary Stewart (Mary, Queen of Scots), he was raised by so-called "protectors", several of whom abused him physically, emotionally and sexually. Being also a sickly child, this left him with several health issues, as well as being easily swayed by strong personalities and, like many an abuse sufferer before him, prone to the same behaviours that had been practiced on himself by others.
2007-08-19 22:55:54 · answer #4 · answered by prnigel 5 · 1⤊ 0⤋
What makes you say that King James I of England was a pagan? If you are implying that his Christianity was somehow less than pristine, I would like to see your sources.....
2007-08-19 22:44:14 · answer #5 · answered by Anne Hatzakis 6 · 1⤊ 1⤋
Yes, but there have been intense efforts of re translating the bible since then. Also, if you're so concerned about translation, try learning Hebrew, and Latin.
2007-08-19 22:44:39 · answer #6 · answered by Anonymous · 0⤊ 1⤋
Even pagan kings had respect for the Word of God....
How does that make you feel.?
2007-08-19 22:43:12 · answer #7 · answered by Anonymous · 0⤊ 3⤋
Aye, very, more so if you know the reasons behind it ...I imagine that, if he knew how it would turn out, he would not have done it, and yes it is true. It should be easy for any believer of g-d to also believe this fact.
2007-08-19 22:43:32 · answer #8 · answered by Edhelosa 5 · 0⤊ 2⤋
Doesn't really matter to the serious student. Scholars of the dead sea scrolls have said that our 'versions' of scripture are 99% accurate to the scrolls. So, God has gotten it pretty much right for at least 2000 years.
2007-08-19 22:43:33 · answer #9 · answered by witnessnbr1 4 · 1⤊ 4⤋
He wasn't pagan, but he was gay.
2007-08-19 22:46:59 · answer #10 · answered by The Doctor 7 · 0⤊ 0⤋