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it is taught that jesus apparently returned " invisibly" in 1914 right? in 1 Corinthians 11:26... jesus commanded that we continue to proclaim his death by eating the unlevened bread and drinking wine UNTIL HIS RETURN. (by the way....in which "every eye will see" (HELLOOOOO nobody can see him if he's invisible people!)
why.......OH WHY......do they continue with the passover when he has ALREADY RETURNED????
i dare you to answer this.....if you can.
only J- DUBS...who know thier doctrin please

2007-08-18 13:39:52 · 6 answers · asked by ~testube Jebus~ 4 in Society & Culture Religion & Spirituality

teem,,, i would like to thank you for your insight. but i have something different in may bible.. the NIV 1 timothy 6:15-16.
in this scripture, he is not speaking of jesus, but of God.

2007-08-20 08:51:17 · update #1

6 answers

Until the anointed are resurrected to heaven, the covenant for a kingdom is still inforce.

You have to balance such verses as "in the clouds"

Acts 1: 9And after He had said these things, He was lifted up while they were looking on, and a cloud received Him out of their sight.
10And as they were gazing intently into the sky while He was going, behold, two men in white clothing stood beside them.

11They also said, "Men of Galilee, why do you stand looking into the sky? This Jesus, who has been taken up from you into heaven, will come in just the same way as you have watched Him go into heaven."

Please notice the two men looked up and didn't see Jesus because of the clouds.

It is in this 'same way' he will come, invisible to men.

1 Tim 6:14that you keep the commandment without stain or reproach until the appearing of our Lord Jesus Christ,

15which He will bring about at the proper time--He who is the blessed and only Sovereign, the King of kings and Lord of lords,

16who alone possesses immortality and dwells in unapproachable light, whom no man has seen or can see To Him be honor and eternal dominion! Amen.

Please notice that now that Jesus has put on immortality, NO MAN has seen or can see Jesus.

this is why Jesus said look for the signs of his presence.

http://cf.blueletterbible.org/lang/lexicon/lexicon.cfm?strongs=3952

Lexicon Results for parousia (Strong's G3952) Greek for G3952

1) presence

is the first definition of this word.

.

2007-08-19 03:44:03 · answer #1 · answered by TeeM 7 · 1 1

That arrival of Christ is referring to the beginning of Judgment Day for this world.

But, the 3rd chapter of Malachi refers to the sudden arrival of the "messenger of the covenant," who then initiates a complete and final spiritual housecleaning.

Mal 3:2,3 "For he will be like a blazing fire that refines metal or like a strong soap that whitens clothes. He will sit and judge like a refiner of silver, watching closely as the dross is burned away. He will purify the Levites, refining them like gold or silver, so that they may once again offer acceptable sacrifices to the Lord."

Once Jehovah's house is brought into its right order, at some point the final sealing takes place in preparation for the marriage of the Lamb.

Revelation 7 says "do not harm the earth...until after we have sealed" the anointed.

Once that time arrives, then, the new covenant will have been accomplished so that those in the covenant no longer proclaim the death of the Lord. Their witnessing in Christ's behalf will be concluded.

2007-08-20 15:07:02 · answer #2 · answered by keiichi 6 · 2 1

You must be wrong considering the following

"No one can properly understand the work of God as this present time who does not realize that since 1874, the time of the Lord's return in power, there has been a complete change in God's operations." (The Watchtower, September 15, 1922, page 278)

The Scriptures show that his second presence was due in 1874This proof shows that the Lord has been present since 1874" (The Watchtower, March 15, 1923, page 67)

I'm sorry, I forgot they revised things :)

When Jesus returns every eye will see!!!!!!!!!!

2007-08-20 10:53:00 · answer #3 · answered by Will J 4 · 1 1

That is the first really good question I think I have ever seen here.
What I have found is that you must reference

1 Thessalonians4:"and those who are dead in union with Christ will rise first. 17 Afterward we the living who are surviving will, together with them, be caught away in clouds to meet the Lord in the air; and thus we shall always be with [the] Lord"

Matthew 24:31 "And he will send forth his angels with a great trumpet sound, and they will gather his chosen ones together from the four winds, from one extremity of the heavens to their other extremity.."

When we reference all these verses together, the complete picture is that yes Jesus returned to Kingdom Power in the heavens, yet by reason of the fact that he has not yet returned to the earth, (as evidenced by Satan still ruling here) the covenant of the sacraments is still to be practiced.

A very good question though, thanks.
BTW? I am not a JW.

2007-08-18 20:51:41 · answer #4 · answered by Tim 47 7 · 3 1

the return of Jesus is a period of time that finish with Armagedon according to Mathew 24:3-14 it is not a one day process, began with his presence after that great tribulation and at the end the Armageddon we are now living the last part of that period of time, notice that Jesus´s presence is the trigger to the great tribulation, not viceversa.

2007-08-18 21:58:44 · answer #5 · answered by Anonymous · 0 1

This is a question that should be submitted to the Governing Body. Good one! Utilizing dates to estimate the times of the end is very dangerous. No one knows the day, not even the Son, just the Father.

2007-08-18 20:49:36 · answer #6 · answered by Aeon Enigma 4 · 2 3

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