English Deutsch Français Italiano Español Português 繁體中文 Bahasa Indonesia Tiếng Việt ภาษาไทย
All categories

...how is it then that David, speaking by the Spirit, calls him 'Lord'?

For in Pslam 110:1, he says:

"The Lord said to my Lord:
Sit at my right hand
Until I put your enemies
under your feet."

If then David calls him 'Lord', how can he be his son?

-

2007-08-18 11:54:21 · 15 answers · asked by yachadhoo 6 in Society & Culture Religion & Spirituality

Christians - I am addressing Jews. (see Matthew 22:41-45!)

Jews - Did I claim Jesus was the Messiah? No, I am merely asking a question:

If the messiah is to be the son of David, but David calls him 'Lord', then how can the messiah be David's son?

Please explain this to me.

2007-08-18 12:08:00 · update #1

15 answers

A 1200+ year old argument that keeps coming up again and again.

I dont have time to explain it fully so I will simply link you to a site which dose so quite nicely.

http://www.jewsforjudaism.org/web/faq/faq059.html

2007-08-19 01:38:32 · answer #1 · answered by Gamla Joe 7 · 1 0

1) The messiah is a human being descended from David, NOT a divine being.
2) The dirrect hebrew translation of 110:1 should be: 1. Of David a psalm. The word of the Lord to my master; "Wait for My right hand, until I make your enemies a footstool at your feet."
The Rabbis interpret this to refer to God talking to Abraham- and thus the small letters for "master" since it is NOT referring to God. (see the commentary of Rashi and the Targum Yonasan on this verse) This verse has nothing to do with Messiah or his lineage.

2007-08-19 06:56:10 · answer #2 · answered by allonyoav 7 · 0 0

People are confused about what they read.
The capital L , Lord refers to the father, God.
The small l , lord, refers to the son, Adam.
How come people are so confused and assuming Jesus Christ is God's son? It's not wonder the bible warns that people will be convinced that the false teachings they had been brought up to believe will actually be false.
The bible clearly says the body is not the actual man, but only a suit the actual man who's inside wears.
Inside was God himself, not his son Adam.
The bible warns that God will delusion sinners to believe a lie.
The bible clearly says all people are sinners.
Doesn't the bible clearly say the father will manifest in the flesh to appear in the image of his son? Wasn't that what happened, God manifest in the flesh?
That verse doesn't say to be his son. Image is a likeness, not the actual.
Does not the bible clearly say that when God's son is born on the earth, only God will know his son had been born and living on the earth among the people the first thirty-something years?
Didn't the angel tell Mary that Jesus shall be called the Son of God, also that the angel didn't say he will be or is the son of God?
Only God will know his son is born and living on the earth for the first thirty-something years.
Jesus said you see me, you have seen the father.
Jesus also said God's son is in heaven.
Adam was God's son.
The bible says God's son will return to harvest the crop he tilled. Didn't God tell Adam to till?
Doesn't the bible says God's son will make only 3 appearances upon the earth? And that the second appearance will be in the image of God.
Doesn't the bible say an image of God appeared upon the earth and spoke when Jesus was baptized? Didn't Jesus say God's son is in heaven.
Doesn't the bible clearly say only God is perfect?
Doesn't the bible clearly say Jesus is perfect and has always been perfect, even since the beginning?
Doesn't the bible clearly say God's son will not be perfect and he will have to learn to become perfect?
Doesn't the bible clearly say, that God's son will be born in sin and he will sin?
Was Jesus actually the son of God, or just the father himself acting as if he is God's son?
If God wants to put his real son on the earth so that no man or angel will know he's on the earth, then that's one way of successfully doing that.
Could you imagine if God pretended to be his son so that when he put his real son Adam on the earth as a man and under a new name, then who in their "right" mind could possibly believe the real son of God, when they are already convinced that God himself, who was Jesus Christ is the son of God? Especially after so many false prophets have already showed up and deceived people?
Could you imagine that all of the preachers, priest, scholars, etc. are really false. Could you imagine how many people could possible be willing to believe the real son of God in the last days? Maybe like the bible says, not even one man will believe him when he returns.
The bible warns you must believe his son. Yet all those who claim they believe God's son actually doesn't.

2007-08-18 19:24:56 · answer #3 · answered by tiscpa 3 · 0 3

The first is actually the Tetragrammaton, the second is adonai, master. David is referring to himself and what G-d told him.

This is BASIC Hebrew. Either Jesus didn't know Hebrew or Matthew didn't know what he was talking about.

See the first link for a fuller explanation, the second for a side by side Hebrew-English.

[edit] re your AD: We can't. The Hebrew in no way supports that reading. It wasn't written as a Messianic text.

2007-08-18 19:10:28 · answer #4 · answered by The angels have the phone box. 7 · 5 2

The Messiah will be king of kings and ruler of rulers. Luke 3:23-38; especially verse 31.

2007-08-18 19:18:22 · answer #5 · answered by bruster 1 · 0 3

the messiah will rebuild a third temple did jesus do that?
the messiah will stop all wars did jesus do that?
the messiah will bring all jews back to isreal did jesus do that?
the messiah wouid make the world believe in the god of isreal did jesus do that?
no
jesus is not the messiah

2007-08-18 19:01:03 · answer #6 · answered by Anonymous · 5 3

He was born down the line of David by way of Mary a descendant of David, that's why they also called him the son of man.

2007-08-18 18:59:31 · answer #7 · answered by Anonymous · 2 4

you have a *slight* technical mistranslation.

it should be read as "God said to my lord"

as in, "The Lord said to my king" or "ruler" or "leader"

capitalizing the second "lord" is a deliberate misrepresentation.

2007-08-18 19:18:21 · answer #8 · answered by RW 6 · 5 0

frankly, its because judaism doesn't insert the messiah into random psalms that aren't referring to the messiah.

2007-08-18 19:12:12 · answer #9 · answered by Anonymous · 5 0

Son of David? LINAGE of David. There is quite a difference there. Jesus is the Son of God.

2007-08-18 19:00:40 · answer #10 · answered by ♥Sunny Girl♥ 5 · 0 4

fedest.com, questions and answers