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Jesus forbade: "Call no man your father on earth, for you have one Father, who is in heaven" (Matt. 23:9).

Example
Paul’s statement, "I do not write this to make you ashamed, but to admonish you as my beloved children. For though you have countless guides in Christ, you do not have many fathers. For I became your father in Christ Jesus through the gospel" (1 Cor. 4:14–15).

2007-08-18 10:07:44 · 16 answers · asked by Anonymous in Society & Culture Religion & Spirituality

16 answers

We are not to call a man father in a fashion that would compare him to God.Paul uses the word father here to imply that he was one of the Apostles who took part in establishing the Gospel of Jesus Christ.Just as we have our for fathers who established our constitution.To call a man father esteeming him to be your Spiritual Father is a sin.We as Christians have ministers, pastors,shepards but not fathers over us today.Paul at this time referred to them as "guides".

2007-08-18 10:33:57 · answer #1 · answered by don_steele54 6 · 1 0

Well first the word father is translated as begotten in the King James Version not father. It is important to remember when reading the bible that the words are translated into a particular language and often the translation used is as close as could be gotten to the actual word in the original text. Which means everytime you see the words, lord, father, etc. the same words may not have been used in the original language, so therefore, the meaning in the original may be different than the words we use, but it was as close as the translators could come. For instance the KJV uses the phrase ten thousand guides instead of countless guides. The meaning isn't even the same, as ten thousand is not countless, but an actual number. Some bibles call Mary simply a young girl, while Mary wasn't a young girl, but a virgin girl. For that reason I do not use any bible other than the KJV as the original texts were used to translate, while alot of bibles today simply use other translations, rather than the original text and the meaning is often lost.

2007-08-18 17:38:18 · answer #2 · answered by Capri 1230 3 · 0 0

Paul had become an Apostle to the Nations, he could rightly say that " For I became your father in Christ Jesus through the gospel"
because he was a " Tutor" of the Good news of the Christ. Most of the writings of the Christian Greek Scriptures were from Paul.
If ever there was an energetic follower of Christ who wanted to help all people proclaim God’s kingdom it was Paul. He said: “I have made myself the slave to all, that I may gain the most persons.” (1 Cor. 9:19) He had no use for lazy people. There was work to be done. His Master, Jesus, died in this work, and Paul, being a good imitator of him, could say to us: “Become imitators of me, even as I am of Christ.”—1 Cor. 11:1.
So No, Paul was not going against what Jesus said.

2007-08-18 17:19:20 · answer #3 · answered by conundrum 7 · 0 0

No. Paul was not using the term “father” as a title, but as an illustration. He was using the earthly relationship in the human family to show the true picture of his position relative to the Corinthian Christians. Nowhere is he addressed as Father Paul. Peter referred to him as “our beloved brother Paul”. (2 Pet. 3:15) None of the apostles were ever addressed with the title Father. For them to be so addressed by others would have violated Jesus’ command: “Do not call anyone your father on earth, for One is your Father, the heavenly One.” The context shows he was objecting to flattering titles. (Matt. 23:6-12) Hence Paul’s use of the illustration “father” to accurately portray his relationship to Christian congregations and individuals, and not as a creature-exalting title, was no violation of Matthew 23:9.

2007-08-18 17:09:38 · answer #4 · answered by LineDancer 7 · 4 0

Paul was talking about the power and authority Jesus imputes upon us, to gently and affectionately reprove sinners away from sin. Being a father-like figure to the lost children of God is done in the spirit of love and meekness, yet with the parental authority Jesus role-modeled for others, so that conviction may melt their hardened hearts and open their spiritual eyes towards belief, repentance, and deliverance.

2007-08-18 17:17:56 · answer #5 · answered by Dr. G™ 5 · 0 0

You're taking two metaphors and trying to compare them when they aren't equal.

I think what Jesus was referring to were people like Mormons calling Joseph Smith their father, or the Catholic church calling the pope their father.....see the meaning?

Paul is calling himself 'father' in the sense that he taught them and brought them up 'in the faith' as a father would raise a child into full knowledge of something.

2007-08-18 17:11:37 · answer #6 · answered by lady_phoenix39 6 · 1 0

you have to read passages in context in order to understand their meaning. IN that passage, Jesus condems the Jewish leaders for using "father" in vain and empty way. Jesus doesn't mind titles and roles, but the self-aggrandizing abuse of the scribes and pharisees. In Matthew 23:10, it says to call no one teacher ,but Christ, but then in John 3:10, Christ calls Nicodemus the teacher of Israel. Therefore, one must read the Bible in context. God bless.

2007-08-18 17:17:47 · answer #7 · answered by Anonymous · 0 0

No he did not.

Jesus doesn't mean that in a literary sense, and Paul was saying that he is their father in Christ.

kind of like a fellow brother in Christ.

at least I'm pretty sure that's what he means.

2007-08-18 17:12:59 · answer #8 · answered by John 4 · 0 0

just one of many inconsistencies from the dude paul who also contradicted his own teachings in Acts 15, 20 and 21

he was forced to do the ritual he was telling others that was unnecessary and immediately a mob formed after the ritual, landing the con man in jail until end of book, likely where he wrote Corinthians and other letters not meant to be taken as gospel or put together so we can see the lies

2007-08-18 17:12:36 · answer #9 · answered by voice_of_reason 6 · 1 1

on the surface, yes.
But you should really look at that 1 Cor. 4 quote in a translation that is more accurate to the original Greek.

In the Greek, the phrase is used metaphorically.

2007-08-18 17:23:44 · answer #10 · answered by Bobby Jim 7 · 0 0

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