2007-08-18 07:55:05 · 19 answers · asked by skeptic 6 in Society & Culture ➔ Religion & Spirituality
OK, so you've pointed out that Matthew can requote old prophecy. But Jesus was still never called "Immanuel."
2007-08-18 08:02:25 · update #1
You mean that no particular person is recorded as calling Jesus - Immanuel. Yes that is correct - and the point you are trying to make?
2007-08-18 08:06:41 · answer #1 · answered by cheir 7 · 0⤊ 0⤋
This name was meant to convince Ahaz that God could rescue him from his enemies. See Numbers 14:9, 2 Chronicles 13:12 and Psalm 46:7. 'Immanuel' is used again in ch 8:8,9 and may be another name for Mahershalalhashbaz (ch 8:3). If so, the boy's names had complementary significance. Jesus was the final fulfilment of this prophecy, for he was 'God with us' in the fullest sense. See Matthew 1:23 and compare with Isaiah 9:6-7 which latter passage gives the Messiah a whole raft of titles, most of which are not directly applied to him in the New Testament. But by considering Jesus' own applications of prophecies to himself, and the apostles similar applications and quotations, it is clear ALL of those names and titles apply to Jesus. Hope that helps!
2007-08-18 15:10:10 · answer #2 · answered by Anonymous · 0⤊ 0⤋
He is. But like the religious cults of Christianity such as Mormons and Watchtower, you miss the meaning of the name and pick and choose what to take literally in order to satisfy your own deceptive heart. Be an honest skeptic. Currently you're just being a pessimist.
Isaiah 7:14
Therefore the Lord himself will give you a sign: The virgin will be with child and will give birth to a son, and will call him Immanuel.
Matthew 1:22-23
22All this took place to fulfill what the Lord had said through the prophet: 23"The virgin will be with child and will give birth to a son, and they will call him Immanuel"—which means, "God with us."
John 1:14
The Word became flesh and made his dwelling among us.
Matthew 9:10
While Jesus was having dinner at Matthew's house, many tax collectors and "sinners" came and ate WITH him and his disciples.
18While he was saying this, a ruler came and knelt before him and said, "My daughter has just died. But come and put your hand on her, and she will live." 19Jesus got up and went WITH him, and so did his disciples.
2007-08-18 14:58:08 · answer #3 · answered by wassupmang 5 · 4⤊ 0⤋
Immanuel means "God with us" right? It is a descriptive name just like Jesus which means "God saves". Both of those titles were demonstrated by Jesus who was the Word made flesh who laid down his life to save all who would believe on Him.
John 1:1 In the beginning was the Word, and the Word was with God, and the Word was God...14 And the Word became flesh and dwelt among us, and we have seen his glory, glory as of the only Son from the Father, full of grace and truth.
John 3:13 No one has ascended into heaven except he who descended from heaven, the Son of Man. 14 And as Moses lifted up the serpent in the wilderness, so must the Son of Man be lifted up, 15 that whoever believes in him may have eternal life.
16 "For God so loved the world, that he gave his only Son, that whoever believes in him should not perish but have eternal life. 17 For God did not send his Son into the world to condemn the world, but in order that the world might be saved through him. 18 Whoever believes in him is not condemned, but whoever does not believe is condemned already, because he has not believed in the name of the only Son of God.
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2007-08-18 15:51:58 · answer #4 · answered by Martin S 7 · 0⤊ 0⤋
In Matthew. Start in Chapter 1. Immanuel means, 'God with us'. Immanuel would be born of a virgin as a sign (Isaiah). Jesus Is born of a virgin. He will be called Yeshua that means, 'He will save (Savior)'. Yeshua Is Immanuel.
2007-08-18 15:00:31 · answer #5 · answered by t_a_m_i_l 6 · 1⤊ 0⤋
Isaiah 7:14 does not refer to Mary and Jesus or even a virgin birth, but to Isaiah's wife and son. The child was born during the time when Ahaz ruled Judah. I don't see how Christians can not see this unless they never read Isaiah, it seems they just read this one verse only.
2007-08-18 16:27:11 · answer #6 · answered by ST 4 · 0⤊ 0⤋
I call him Immanuel. If the prophecy is "he shall be called Immanuel" then even if I was the only one, the prophecy would be fulfilled. However, the Eastern Liturgies call him Immanuel as well.
2007-08-18 17:35:19 · answer #7 · answered by delsydebothom 4 · 0⤊ 1⤋
Immanual translates to "God with us". The NT affirms in many places that God became flesh and walked among us. It also tells us that Christ humbled himself to take on the likeness of men (Philippians 2:5-8). And Christ himself affirmed that his disciples, having seen Him, had seen the Father (John 14: 7-9; compare Colossians 1: 15-17).
Furthermore, the religious leaders of his day were always trying to stone him for blasphemy. Why? because they complained that he was making himself "equal to God". They understood what he meant when he said the things he did.
If you want to understand the person and nature of Christ, the Gospel of John is your best resource.
2007-08-18 15:18:04 · answer #8 · answered by Simon Peter 5 · 0⤊ 0⤋
Matthew 1:22 Now all this was done, that it might be fulfilled which was spoken of the Lord by the prophet, saying,
23 Behold, a virgin shall be with child, and shall bring forth a son, and they shall call his name Emmanuel, which being interpreted is, God with us.
24 Then Joseph being raised from sleep did as the angel of the Lord had bidden him, and took unto him his wife:
25 And knew her not till she had brought forth her firstborn son: and he called his name JESUS.
The name given to our savior Jesus, in English, is the name above every name and he is the one whose name means "God with us."
2007-08-18 15:00:49 · answer #9 · answered by hisgloryisgreat 6 · 1⤊ 0⤋
Ever read Matthew 1:23 ?
2007-08-18 15:01:10 · answer #10 · answered by Anonymous · 0⤊ 0⤋