if 2 people commit to loving one another for the rest of their life, does that not constitute? Where does it say in the bible that man shall not marry another man? And where specifically does it say a man shall not have sex with another man within the bounds of marriage? I believe this is another area that has not been fully read into context.
2007-08-18 03:50:21 · 15 answers · asked by Matthew V 1 in Society & Culture ➔ Religion & Spirituality
It says quite clearly - and in several place - "Get thee behind me, Satan" ;);););)
2007-08-18 04:02:43 · answer #1 · answered by kr_toronto 7 · 1⤊ 0⤋
I'm generally a patient woman, but this question has been done to death, already.
Everyone knows, by this time, that the Bible expressly forbids sex between two men, or sex between two women. Since marriage is a sexual union, it would seem to follow that same sex marriage is a no-no.
What part of this is so difficult for people to understand?
You can twist these scriptures, and put your own spin on them, if you like, and you can "prove" that God approves of homosexual marriage.
I can also take scriptures out of context, twist them around a bit, put my own spin on them, and "prove" that God's favorite people are prostitutes (although I am not now, nor have I ever been a prostitute, this is just an example)...but I would be proving a lie, just as you are trying to do.
If you really worked at it, you could probably "prove" that there are occasions when it is OK to steal, or to lie, or even to do murder. Why not? Well, because you'd be proving a LIE! (I've never killed anyone, either, btw!)
Rather than trying to twist God's Word to fit your desires, wouldn't it make more sense to fit your desires into God's Word? Oh, I know it's a bit more difficult...believe it or not, homosexuals are not the only ones who have sin in their lives that they must overcome, they are just the ones in the limelight right now. We all have sin in our lives, and we all face temptations every day. We could, if we wished, twist things around to make it seem as if God is pleased with us, no matter what our particular sin is...
We can maybe even fool ourselves, and maybe even some others that way...after all, most folks don't really read and study much on their own, anyway...but, don't kid yourself. You cannot fool God.
Be not deceived, my friend...God is not mocked.
2007-08-18 04:20:49 · answer #2 · answered by Anonymous · 0⤊ 1⤋
The bible does not speak on same sex marriage that I am aware of but it does speak on homosexuality. Leviticus 20:13 also in Leviticus 18 it speaks of it. If by chance your are one of those people who do not live by the old and new testiment then try Romans 1:26-29 there are more I just don't know them right off hand I would have to look. Some people say you shouldn't take the Bible literally. I do take the bible literally I know that there are parables in the bible but those say that they are parables. I believe the bible was devinely inspired and I believe what God wanted in the bible is in the bible. To your questions about where does it say that a man shall not marry a man or have sex with a man in a commited relationship or marriage. It simply says this Leviticus 18:22 You shall not lie with a male as with a women (this is in the laws of sexual morality)Leviticus 20:13 If a male lies with a male as he lies with a women, both of them have committed an abomination. Notice that the arguement that most people who are on the side of homosexuality (which is the bible is talking about rape or prostitution) neither of them are even incenuated. If you read that then I must be reading a different bible than you are. Romans 1:26-29 For this reason God gave them up to vile passions. For even their women exchanged the natural use for what is against nature.27 Likewise also the men, leaveing the natural use of the women, burned in their lusts for one another men with men committing what is shameful,and receiving in themselves the penalty of their error which was due.28 And even though they did not like to retain God in their knowledge, God gave them over to a debased mind, to do those things which are not fitting; 29 being filled with all unrigheousness, sexual immorality, wickedness, covetousness, maliciousness;full of envy, murder, strife, deceit,evil-mindedness; they are whispers, backbiters and haters of God, violent, proud, boasters,inventors of evil things, disobedient to parents. If this doesn't tell you that it is against the nature of what created us then I don't know what will. Don't get me wrong I haven't got anything against anyone I just don't happen to believe in the lifestyle that they are leading. I do think it is wrong in Gods eyes because the bible is the only thing that I have to go on. And what I read is that it is wrong.
2007-08-18 04:39:06 · answer #3 · answered by LILBITOFKY 3 · 0⤊ 1⤋
It does not say in writing that a man shall not marry another man, but it does say that a man must not have sex with another man.
The bible does not say in writing that man shall not have sex with another man within the bounds of marriage, but neither does it say that a man shall not have sex with another man outside the bounds of marriage, because it does not mention sex between men in relation to marriage or non-marriage, but rather, it simply mentions that sex between men is not allowed. This would therefore apply to all circumstances.
Can you think of a marriage where the parties enter into it intending not to have sex? Is it not obvious that the ban on sex between men implies a ban on marriage between men?
2007-08-18 13:03:08 · answer #4 · answered by Beng T 4 · 0⤊ 1⤋
There is NOTHING in the bible about homosexuality and gay marriage. That all originated from the homophobic minds of religious nut jobs.
2007-08-18 04:02:05 · answer #5 · answered by Anonymous · 3⤊ 0⤋
Consenting gay relationships are not referred to at all in the Bible, homosexuality is not mentioned at all, the word "homosexual" does not occur anywhere in the Bible , only in bad modern translations will you find the word "homosexual".
The Bible does seem to condemn, pederasty with young male slaves(Leviticus), same-sex rape (Sodom, although it was not the reason why the towns were destroyed), sacred Pagan male temple "prostitution"(Romans) But none of these are features of consenting gay relationships... they should not be referred to as homosexuality any more than opposite -sex paedophilia, rape or temple prostitution should be referred to as heterosexuality.
The Bible does not actually condemn homosexual relationships at all, there is every reason to think that the Bible character Jesus would have approved of consenting & committed gay relationships.
2007-08-18 03:56:31 · answer #6 · answered by CHEESUS GROYST 5 · 0⤊ 2⤋
The concept of "same sex marriage" was so alien that "marriage" is not mentioned . The act however is.
9 Don’t you realize that those who do wrong will not inherit the Kingdom of God? Don’t fool yourselves. Those who indulge in sexual sin, or who worship idols, or commit adultery, or are male prostitutes, or practice homosexuality, 10 or are thieves, or greedy people, or drunkards, or are abusive, or cheat people—none of these will inherit the Kingdom of God. 11 Some of you were once like that. But you were cleansed; you were made holy; you were made right with God by calling on the name of the Lord Jesus Christ and by the Spirit of our God.
and
24 So God abandoned them to do whatever shameful things their hearts desired. As a result, they did vile and degrading things with each other’s bodies. 25 They traded the truth about God for a lie. So they worshiped and served the things God created instead of the Creator himself, who is worthy of eternal praise! Amen. 26 That is why God abandoned them to their shameful desires. Even the women turned against the natural way to have sex and instead indulged in sex with each other. 27 And the men, instead of having normal sexual relations with women, burned with lust for each other. Men did shameful things with other men, and as a result of this sin, they suffered within themselves the penalty they deserved.
2007-08-18 04:02:13 · answer #7 · answered by Anonymous · 0⤊ 2⤋
A passage in Romans 1 tells that relations with the same sex is wrong, so how can marriage be right?
God gave them over in the sinful desires of their hearts to sexual impurity for the degrading of their bodies with one another. 25They exchanged the truth of God for a lie, and worshiped and served created things rather than the Creator—who is forever praised. Amen.
26Because of this, God gave them over to shameful lusts. Even their women exchanged natural relations for unnatural ones. 27In the same way the men also abandoned natural relations with women and were inflamed with lust for one another. Men committed indecent acts with other men, and received in themselves the due penalty for their perversion.
God gave them over, does not mean He is ok with them. What part of this passage about it being an indecent act, so you think has been misinterpreted. If a person continues to live in sin, God will give them over to it, however that does make it right, and they will be held accountable.
CHEESUS- the word homosexual itself is not in the Bible,however the act is- read above passage.- what is a relationship with the same sex?
2007-08-18 03:57:12 · answer #8 · answered by AdoreHim 7 · 2⤊ 2⤋
Please don't twist scriptures to make things work for your fleshy wants.
It is clear that God did not make a man for Adam but a woman. God created Marriage and it was clearly for man and woman.
No need to discuss this anymore...for you will follow your fleshy desires anyway which in the end leads to death.
2007-08-18 04:03:17 · answer #9 · answered by Swampmoth 4 · 0⤊ 1⤋
Romans 1:20and following
2Corinthians
Genesis
not so much about marriage as homosexuality
2007-08-18 03:56:07 · answer #10 · answered by firechap20 6 · 0⤊ 2⤋
Read here:
http://www.worldpolicy.org/globalrights/sexorient/hom_bibc.htm
A pretty good article to read for what you are looking for.
2007-08-18 04:00:01 · answer #11 · answered by zelo 5 · 1⤊ 0⤋