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then how do you explain the fact that it was translated centuries ago when people knew practically nothing about greek and hebrew?
And how come there isn't a King James Translation of the Book of Mormon, the Bhagavad Gita, The Dhammada or the Quran?

2007-08-17 10:16:21 · 31 answers · asked by Jerusalem Delivered 3 in Society & Culture Religion & Spirituality

closest to the original? ask any reputable textual scholar and he will say it is not.

2007-08-17 10:22:49 · update #1

31 answers

I kid you not, I have meet people who say of the KJV, "If it was good enough for Peter and Paul, it's good enough for me".

I think that settles it.

2007-08-18 07:16:58 · answer #1 · answered by Anonymous · 1 1

The King James bible being the one true book is an opinion and not a fact. It was translated a long time ago and there was a lot lost in the translation. I was a member of a full gospel church several years ago before my eyes were opened to the "truth" and I saw how many hypocrites there really are in church. I asked my pastor this same question one day. He told me that we have to have faith that the bible is true and is truly God's word.

People who believe in God as Lord of Lords also believe that the Mormon's, and all other religions are wrong and will go to hell. I'm sure that is the reason why we do not see King James versions of these books.

I hope this helps you.

2007-08-17 10:26:28 · answer #2 · answered by dollfacedbaby1 3 · 0 0

Whoever said the KJV is "the one true book?" I certainly don't use it. It's the Bible according to an English head of state, with the bits he didn't like neatly excised. I prefer to use the Douay-Rheims and NAB translations. Those, at least, contain the whole of Scripture. One translation is very old, and the other is modern. I take an average, most times.

And about the other holy books, I suppose King James couldn't be bothered about other religions - in Christian England, they would not have given him any political advantage. The exception here is the Book of Mormon; that one hadn't been invented yet when James was hacking away at Scripture in the early 1600s.

ETA: Good grief, Meshugga, I can't believe there are people out there so ignorant of history that they think 1st century people used a version of the Bible written in 1611. What *are* they teaching in school anymore?

2007-08-17 20:06:05 · answer #3 · answered by nardhelain 5 · 5 0

If the King James Version of the bible was good enough for the apostle Paul, then it's good enough for me!

But seriously, how can you say that the people who translated the King James Version knew practically nothing about Greek and Hebrew? The scholars who did this work did an excellent job for their day. The more modern versions of the bible are virtually identical in meaning.

My one argument against using the KJV exclusively is that the English language has changed considerably since then.

Incidentally, there is no King James translation of the Book of Mormon because it didn't exist yet. And the other books you mentioned were probably unknown in old England.

2007-08-17 10:26:55 · answer #4 · answered by sdb deacon 6 · 1 2

King James ordered a translation of the Bible from the original Hebrew and Greek for himself, which is the Old English version that we call King James and still use today. It is not necessarily the one true translation, it is simply a powerful and beautifully written translation, so many Christians prefer it to other translations.

2007-08-17 10:28:30 · answer #5 · answered by beattyb 5 · 0 0

I do not know about the rest, but the book of Mormon was written 300 years after James died.
Anyone who espouses the King James version is very narrow minded and not too well read.
Most religions declare theirs is the true book.
James simply decreed a law saying the book could be translated from Latin and Greek into English. Doing this, of course, lost a lot of meanings, intentional and other wise.
I like it because it is easily referenced. But I like the Talmud because it is more to my way of thinking.
I don't think James even know about The Bhagavad Gita, or the Quaran. Remember, learning back then, was very limited. And news traveled rather slowly.
I doubt I have answered your question but that is my opinion.

2007-08-17 10:25:48 · answer #6 · answered by Oldvet 4 · 0 1

You must be thinking of the modern era since the likelihood of finding anyone familiar with ancient Greek or Hebrew is less likely than it would have been for the people commissioned by King James to "translate" the documents that made up the Bible. The task was undertaken to consolidate and update the LATIN Bible, the Vulgate, with the use of whatever source texts were available. Additionally, the Book of Mormon was not written until the late 1800's, long after James was dead and gone. As to the Indian and Arab religions...they did not factor into the European religious context of the day and would not have even been considered for translation.

2007-08-17 10:24:10 · answer #7 · answered by johngjordan 3 · 0 2

If the King James version is the only inspired version, then all the versions of the bible in German, French, Russian modern Greek, Bulgarian, Armenian, Syrian, Egyptian, etc, are not inspired! Amazing!

I believe that there are over 2,000 ancient texts considered to be reliable copies of the original texts. These are mostly in Greek and Aramaic (the language that Jesus spoke), but also in Coptic, Armenian, and Syrian. Some ot the texts were found among the Dead Sea Scrolls.

2007-08-17 10:25:35 · answer #8 · answered by Bibs 7 · 1 0

If you believe that, then the evidence is not with you! The translators knew the original languages better than the translators of today.
Why do you ignore the story of Lancelot Andrewes and his qualifications?
The next questions ignore history about why there isn't a KJV style translation of the BOM or Bhagavad Gita etc.
These books were not set to be translated in 1611 at that time.

2007-08-18 07:36:05 · answer #9 · answered by Buzz s 6 · 0 0

Hello,

Do not underestimate the minds of 17th century people, Since the so called Dark Ages through the medieval period and into the 1600's Latin was the world language of the educated in all Europe and Greek was a compulsory subject in many schools. The Jews were established in Europe and many of them were able to help with Hebrew translations.
True, a big majority were not educated but those in the upper crust or clergy that were were second to none, even to today's people in that kind of knowledge.

Michael

2007-08-17 10:28:35 · answer #10 · answered by Michael Kelly 5 · 0 0

You can read any translation you want and still receive the same message. I prefer the New American Standard because it is the most accurate word for word translation available. Many people mistakenly think that Jesus used the KJV of the Bible, and if it was good enough for Jesus it is good enough for them. Some people believe that if you change a word you change the meaning and that is not true. Now the exception to that is those versions that are gender neutral or politically correct stay away from those.

2016-03-17 01:32:19 · answer #11 · answered by ? 4 · 0 0

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