The Mexican War between the United States and Mexico began with a Mexican attack on American troops along the southern border of Texas on Apr. 25, 1846. Fighting ended when U.S. Gen. Winfield Scott occupied Mexico City on Sept. 14, 1847; a few months later a peace treaty was signed (Feb. 2, 1848) at Guadalupe Hidalgo. In addition to recognizing the U.S. annexation of Texas defeated Mexico ceded California and , New Mexico (including all the present-day states of the Southwest) to the United States.
historical interpretations concerning the causes of the Mexican War vary. Simply stated, a dictatorial Centralist government in Mexico began the war because of the U.S. annexation (1845) of Texas, which Mexico continued to claim despite the establishment of the independent republic of Texas 10 years before. Some historians have argued, however, that the United States provoked the war by annexing Texas and, more deliberately, by stationing an army at the mouth of the Rio Grande. Another, related, interpretation maintains that the administration of U.S. President James K. Polk forced Mexico to war in order to seize California and the Southwest. A minority believes the war arose simply out of Mexico's failure to pay claims for losses sustained by U.S. citizens during the Mexican War of Independence.
2007-08-17 06:48:18
·
answer #1
·
answered by jasonsluck13 6
·
10⤊
1⤋
I believe it was precipitated by the independence of Texas from Mexico.
Mexico, lacking the population and resources to make much of it's norther territories, invited American settlers into Texas. They eventually became the dominant force in that region. In time, they revolted against Mexico and declared independence. Not long after that, they became a State of the Union. I do not recall the dates or even the years involved. Famously, a particular battle - 'That Alamo,' a Mexican victory - was used as a rallying cry in the Mexican-American war.
In the terms of the peace treaty that ended the war (or, perhaps some anciliary agreement - again, I don't remember the exact details), Mexico ceded certain of it's northern territories to America, and recieved a cash payment for them.
2007-08-17 07:05:33
·
answer #2
·
answered by B.Kevorkian 7
·
3⤊
0⤋
The people of Texas petitioned for statehood, many were from Mexico. At the time the revolutions in Mexico were a constant occurrence, and the USA was in a period of growth and prosperity and there was no interest in Mexico about the situation in Texas, until the vote took place. Santa Anna was ordered to take it back. He lost not only Texas, but his leg.
The army of the USA sent troops to Veracruz, fought a small battle, then marched to Mexico City unopposed, took Mexico City,in about 15 minutes, resulting in the Treaty of Heldolgo. The USA payed millions of dollars for the land and allowed any Mexican citizens there to become US citizens, honoring property and land grants.
2007-08-17 07:01:53
·
answer #3
·
answered by Commandant Marcos 4
·
3⤊
0⤋
It's far more complicated than that. Mexico did not have a strong claim to the land. The Native Americans continuosly fought back to remain independent. In fact, they fought harder against the Mexicans than they did when Spain claim the land. According to modern rules, Mexico only control a small portion of the land they said they did. In fact, according to modern law, Mexico actually had no claim to the land. This is based on an Indian tribe in British Columbia, who force Canada to sign a very genorous treaty to keep Canada continous. In California, Mexico's hold is basicallly restricted to the areas around the missionaries . Basically the coastal regions. The only reason US was able to take the land, was Mexico was unable to colonize it. What population was there, was negated by the Native Americans. In California, the Native population devastated the hold of the Mexicans, but was force to retreat because disease ravage their people. It was probably partly an intentional act by Mexico, and war condition combine. The Native Americans in California ask the Americans to help push the Mexicans out. Partly because Mexico help enslave the Native population. Although legally they outlawed the slavery, they rarely enforce it. Those who were release was force into a condition that starved them to death. Mexico, basically set them loose, but refuse to give them land to farm nor gave them food to eat. THe missionaries also refuse to recognize Mexico's claim and actually consider it Papal land. Which is probably why slavery was outlawed. It was meant to steal the labor from the missionaries. Also Mexico's claim is not 100%, since Russia has a claim to California as well.
What I heard was the cause of Americans in Texas to rebel, was that Mexico made promises about allowing slavery, but revoked it later. It sounded like they were selective in who was allowed to keep their slave. My feeling was that they allowed the Americans to come in , to counter the Native population. THis came from a bias source, and I have yet to verify it, but it does sound reasonable for the politics of that time.
As for the History Channel, they tend to over simplify everything for the public. I have no question, the US stole the land, but it wasn't from the Mexicans. THe land belong to the tribe that lived there, and the Mexicans are not related to these tribes. In fact the vast majority hate the Mexicans, mostly because of the sttrocities they commited. What America did was when they took over California, was they stabbed the Native Americans in the back and revoked the agreements when they took over California. I believe similar activites occurred for other regions as well.
I find it silly that people here keep claiming US stole the land from Mexico, but ignore the fact Mexico did not hold the land that long and stole it from Spain, which stole it from the Native population.
2007-08-17 07:56:44
·
answer #4
·
answered by Anonymous
·
0⤊
1⤋
Basically what jasonslug said, but, I believe in around 1902 we purchased from Mexico a part of what is now western Texas in what was know as the Gadson Purchase. It was the land north of the Rio Grand that we didn't already own.
2007-08-17 06:53:48
·
answer #5
·
answered by Anonymous
·
4⤊
1⤋
I know that those land masses are better utlized today, and even coveted by the Mexicans now that they see what civilization and organization can do with and for land.~ If they have now become so jealous/envious they can copy, thats what all wanna be's do!
Stealing the land back, is using the same tactic and attitude that keeps Mexico down!
2007-08-17 06:54:23
·
answer #6
·
answered by no2illegals 3
·
3⤊
1⤋
Gadsden purchase, war with Mexico. Theft of land by los gringos are all ways used.
2007-08-17 07:28:11
·
answer #7
·
answered by Anonymous
·
1⤊
0⤋
I think it started with the Mexican-American war and America BOUGHT the land. I live in California, not Mexico!!!
2007-08-17 06:55:05
·
answer #8
·
answered by Anonymous
·
5⤊
4⤋
Jason sums it up pretty well. Keep in mind that Texas was a sovereign nation, the only state that was.
2007-08-17 06:51:02
·
answer #9
·
answered by Anonymous
·
6⤊
1⤋
I'm not sure of all the details, but a treaty was signed.
Alaska is not going back to Russia. The Louisiana Purchase is not going back to France. The thirteen colonies are not going back to England. And the American Southwest is not going back to Mexico.
Too many people are living in the past.
2007-08-17 06:49:40
·
answer #10
·
answered by American citizen and taxpayer 7
·
9⤊
3⤋