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1.) Did we steal this land *USA*
2.) Did Native Americans immigrate to American?
3.) Do we owe Hispanics anything?

Please show sources.

2007-08-17 06:02:43 · 22 answers · asked by Anonymous in Politics & Government Immigration

http://www.mexica-movement.org --- do we really owe them?

2007-08-17 06:04:41 · update #1

22 answers

'White' America CONQUERED what is now the USA from its native inhabitants.

If the Mexicans crossing the border intend to CONQUER the USA, then should there not be a war and battles along the border?

If they are immigrating, then they should follow the USA's laws, PERIOD.

To answer your second question they migrated to this continent from Asia. The time period is disputed.

To answer your third question, why would we owe Hispanics anything, and for what?

2007-08-17 06:09:01 · answer #1 · answered by Ray G 3 · 12 2

Native depends on how much time you're talking about. I believe, according to science, that "native" Americans came here from asia some thousands of years ago across the Bering Strait when it was frozen. So they're more native than us.
Did we steal the land? Sure we did. Would they have stolen it from us had they had the technology? I imagine so. This is not to say that stealing's OK. It just means that the native Americans aren't great and we're not just bastards. We're all human. And we did a human bad thing by stealing the land.
Nobody owes anybody anything. I think good relations rather than morals should be the goal here. The native Americans are pissed off that we took from them much of what they had. Quite frankly I don't blame them. Do we want to alienate them by saying we don't care? To always be fighting them? Or do we want to work with them and use and learn about this wonderful human resource?

2007-08-17 06:19:09 · answer #2 · answered by LG 7 · 3 2

In a way, all those who came from Europe to America took this land illegally. There were no legal framework at that time so it's hard to say how this issue should be handled.
In many cases, the land was taken by the use of violence. In those cases you can say that the land was stolen.

Native Americans is not only one group of people. Some tribes migrate and migrated crossing the borders we have today (that didn't exist before). It's hard to tell what kind of rights should they be entitled to based on their original location. Again, there was no legal framework at that time.

No, we don't owe hispanics anything. They came to America looking for wealth for the kingdom. And the hispanics born in America decided to send the king to "pleasure himself sexually" in order not to pay taxes anymore (surprisingly, we let our own governments take half of our hard earn money). As you can see the king came here to take wealth from America, their lackeys crossed him and kept the wealth for themselves and the natives didn't have explicit ownership of it.

If you try to see the history through the current legal framework, you're in big trouble. You'll have to take Adam and Eve to court under charges of indecent exposure. Cain for murder and Jesus for disorderly conduct.
It's a long path to nowhere. In the end, the borders are going to be the same, the situation the same. The conquerors that killed natives, broke the law? What about the natives that killed them? Taking the land was illegal?
In comparison, the independence of all the countries in America is illegal. All those countries were ruled at that time by the kingdom they were under and all the revolution heroes were criminals under that law.

So, when you say "steal" talking about a historic event without a legal framework, what does "steal" mean?
And from an ethic point of view, is "steal" if you take a piece of land nobody considers it's own or nobody knows about? what if somebody is living there but without a concept of ownership? What if they're nomads and are not there at that time?
The only case you can take seriously is where the natives were either killed or pushed away by the use of violence to take the land. But if they fought and loose, do they have the right to claim the land back?
So, Ireland should be free, most of Spain too. South Africa, Australia and others shouldn't be countries anymore. And if you check all the cases one by one and go all around the world and back in time to the very beginning, there are no countries. Where are you going to stop?

By the way, I think that the Nican Tlaca movement claims make no sense.

2007-08-17 06:52:48 · answer #3 · answered by Anonymous · 3 0

Well, I think it will be a long time before anybody can scientifically prove whether the Native Americans were *created* here or came here. Also, I think that the English people did kind of steal their land. You have to think of it because when they came, they didn't have the U.S. yet and they didn't come with the Declaration of Independence and the idea of freedom right when they stepped onto this land. In some ways, the land was stolen, and in some ways, it wasn't. Plus, there will always be people that don't want to see the facts and just say that the land wasn't stolen...blah, blah, blah. I think this was kind of a good question though. As for the Hispanic part, the land used to belong to the ancient Indians like the Aztec and the Mayans or whatever. Considering now, that they hardly exist, nothing is owed to the Hispanics, just in some ways.

2007-08-17 06:11:04 · answer #4 · answered by Anonymous · 2 4

1) /We/ did not steal any land. The oldest living Americans today were born at the turn of the last century - decades after the current borders of the Continental United States of America were last altered. So, even if you consider a peace treaty accompanied by payment for land sceded 'theft,' 'we' did not do any of the 'stealing.'

2) The early history of the human race is still not clearly known, but currently, achaeological evidence seems to indicate that humans came to the western hemisphere as early as 10-15,000 years ago, while the species may be as old as 200,000 years - in Africa. So, yes, if you go far enough back, you can suppose that the vast majority of people have had immigrants as thier ancestors.

3) No, no one is owed anything on account of thier race - be it privilige or scorn, to judge races rather than individuals is simply racist.

2007-08-17 06:15:41 · answer #5 · answered by B.Kevorkian 7 · 6 2

There was no USA government at the time to steal this country, but many European country did claim this land for their own.
Yes, as far as we can tell they came from Asia across the Bearing Straits. No one is owed anything

2007-08-17 10:05:41 · answer #6 · answered by jean 7 · 2 0

hundreds of years ago during the Ice Age the now 'native Americans' crossed the Bering Straight which was an ice bridge connecting the current Russia and Canada the crossed it following the wolly mammoths and traveled along western Canada and over to the US...then spread out. They where hunters and gatherers and while some stayed in certain parts of western Canada and US some moved on into Mexico and continued on to South America. This was obviously over the course of hundreds of years. They where the first peoples of the Americas.

2007-08-17 06:15:33 · answer #7 · answered by Alone 2 · 3 1

anthropology says the ancestors of the natives came here, possibly in multiple waves, between 8,000 and 50,000 years ago.

obviously, when the first wave arrived, there were no people here.

now, 'immigrate' kinda supposes that there is an organized political entity or government pre-existing but in their ancestors' case, there wasn't.

***
prior to the 16th century, the accepted by the locals pattern of control was warfare. victor takes control and losers try to get back later.

under those standards, Europeans won fair and square. so we didn't steal anything, we won it.

as to the Hispanics, if we don't take action, they'll take over -- but then, things have always been this way, so nothing is new.

***
btw, the followers of Samuel Huntington [sp?] and his clash of cultures materials aren't yet sure if Hispanic cultures are separate from European cultures or are in the process of joining the Europeans as one culture.


stay tuned for further results in around 50 years or so.


:-)

2007-08-17 06:12:25 · answer #8 · answered by Spock (rhp) 7 · 2 2

Answer to Question 1: YES the white man stole the land. Link one is written permission from Pope Alexander VI which granted the monarchs of Spain the "right" to possess, own, and EXPLOIT any part of the earth not already under control by the Christian nation. Christopher Columbus read this edict to every native village he came across, didn't matter that they DIDN'T UNDERSTAND A WORD HE SAID. Link 2 is what the "great" Christopher Columbus did to the natives of the new world. It's sickening and horrific.

Answer to Question 2: Scientists say that they migrated from Asia thousands of years ago. Native's don't believe or care what the scientists say, as they have been here for 20,000+ years.

Answer to Question 3: No we don't.

p.s
i don't care if people like my answer or not...the truth always is hard to swallow.

2007-08-17 07:05:06 · answer #9 · answered by anti_sheeple 2 · 0 4

Native Americans immigrated here from Asia across the land bridge thousands of years ago.

For your information, I'm part Cherokee but I have studied history.

2007-08-17 06:29:04 · answer #10 · answered by Anonymous · 3 1

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