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people argue that israel has a right to exist. israeli state was made in 1948 not too long ago. so before 1948 palestinians occupied it because it was there land. israel comes in 1948, slaughters palestinians, steals there land, calls it israel, and people are wondering why palestinians dont recognize israel as a state.

2007-08-16 04:32:40 · 19 answers · asked by 26th-of-July 1 in Society & Culture Religion & Spirituality

last time i checked the muslims kicked the christians asses in the crusades and owned the gates of jerusalem

2007-08-16 04:43:45 · update #1

19 answers

the Palestinians are an invented race, without famous, actors, Nobel prizes, writers.
the only thing that is the “Palestinians” is that they are fanatical crazy people, and deberian to go to live to Syrian, or Jordan, or Egypt, or Morocco, or Iraq.

2007-08-18 05:43:37 · answer #1 · answered by antoinne de saint exupery 2 · 2 1

Honestly, if you look through history, Jews have been neglected (can't think of a better term) and they've been wandering around a lot.
Muslims, Jews, and Christians all basically believe in the same things (if you're not a stupid extremist who believes that a jihad is killing innocent people) and they should get over their differences and recognize Israel as a state.
Nobody can say who's wrong and who's right, both countries should stop fighting and reach an agreement where Israel can continue to exist, but Palestine gets its fair share, because both innocent Jews and Muslims have been killed.
You can't solve anything with a war. All that happens is that people die meaningless deaths.

2007-08-16 10:21:30 · answer #2 · answered by charlotte 4 · 0 0

1. Palestinians never had a state. The land called Palestine was a perpetual colony owned by the Ottoman Empire and after WWI, Britain. The British owned the land and gave it to the UN, who gave it to the Jews. So simply by being passed down through ownership, Israel has a right to exist.

2. It was never the Palestinians land. Their land belonged to the process stated above.

3. The first known act of Arab-Jew violence was in 1917, long before a state was ever established. The Arabs didn't like that so many Jews were coming to the country so decided to kill them--showed in the Hebron Massacre of 1929, where over 60 Jews who'd been living peacefully with their Arab neighbors for generations were slaughtered. And this was before 1948.

So, nothing you've said has anything to do with anything.

2007-08-16 05:05:53 · answer #3 · answered by LadySuri 7 · 0 4

Israel has only been in existence for 60 years so if Israel was God's chosen people why was it not called Israel in the Bible and by the general world community until after the Arab Israeli war? The reason is because Israel never existed before 1948. It was Palestine. The original UN partition plan was 52% for "Israel", 40% for Palestine(UN cheated Palestine out of their rightful land), and the remaining 2% for an international Jerusalem. I support my brothers and sisters in Palestine. If Jordan had helped Syria and Egypt then the Muslims would have gained Palestine back. I agree with everything you said. I watch Al Jazeera and thankfully Al Jazeera speaks the truth. I find it stupid that the Palestine people are called terrorists for defending their homes when Israel is bombing them day and night and then complaining when Palestine fights back. Palestine is not full of terrorists.

2007-08-16 05:10:13 · answer #4 · answered by Anonymous · 1 3

And what was it before the Palestinians took over ? That section o the world has been occupied and governed by many many different groups.
Any one of those groups could say, " That land was ours in - - whatever ". The Jews are an ancient civilization. Where is their land ? If you were given the job of taking a large map of the entire Mid-East and circling the area that you figured was the legitimate land that was ancient Jewish terrirory, and should be given back to them, what would you circle ? Come on now, be fair.

2007-08-16 04:49:59 · answer #5 · answered by Anonymous · 1 1

Hello;

By Divine Right, the areas now called Syria, Saudi Arabia, Jordan, Iran, Iraq, the Gulf States and part of Turkey rightly belong to Israel.

Look at a map of that area. Why does Israel have the smallest land area? Answer, the Balfour Declaration formatted by Great Britain, after she made deals with the Arabs for oil rights. Systematically began carving up areas of land and giving them to the Arab chiefs who gave them the best deals.

The state now called Israel, was mandated by a vote of the United Nations. Two days later the Arabs were at war, trying to throw the Jews out of their homeland.

Incidently, Nazi Germany and the former Soviet Union were once referred to as "states."

Here's a tip. No nation will ever defeat Israel,

2007-08-16 04:54:47 · answer #6 · answered by Anonymous · 0 2

After Hitler slaughtered lots of them in WW1, they "find" this land in the Bible, they thought it was a good idea . They are smart enough they know that they will get backed up from the Bible believers.

PS
I forget, what actually Jews did to Jesus and the Christians when Jesus was still around??
Were the Jews who helped Jesus and Christians against the Roman??
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I think Aussie 1 is right tho.
It looks that way isn't it?

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I agree with you, if I am Palestinians I would try to keep my land too, as much as I can.

BTW .
Am I wrong that Palestinians are Jews who believe in Islam and they are not Arabs?

If so, maybe the Jews mention in Bible are the Jews who believe in Islam = The Palestinians as well ( Jews are Jews whether they are Judaism, Christians, Muslim , Budhist, Atheist or any other religion) don't they ????

Well, good question.
Let us see.

2007-08-16 05:05:31 · answer #7 · answered by Anonymous · 2 2

"Israel's" so-called right to exist means right to exist as a racist apartheid occupier


___________________________________
"recognize Israel," or to "recognize Israel's existence," or to "recognize Israel's right to exist."

These three verbal formulations have been used by Israel, the United States, and the European Union as a rationale for collective punishment of the Palestinian people. The phrases are also used by the media, politicians, and even diplomats interchangeably, as though they mean the same thing. They do not.

"Recognizing Israel" or any other state is a formal legal and diplomatic act by one state with respect to another state. It is inappropriate – indeed, nonsensical – to talk about a political party or movement extending diplomatic recognition to a state. To talk of Hamas "recognizing Israel" is simply to use sloppy, confusing, and deceptive shorthand for the real demand being made of the Palestinians.

"Recognizing Israel's existence" appears on first impression to involve a relatively straightforward acknowledgment of a fact of life. Yet there are serious practical problems with this language. What Israel, within what borders, is involved? Is it the 55 percent of historical Palestine recommended for a Jewish state by the UN General Assembly in 1947? The 78 percent of historical Palestine occupied by the Zionist movement in 1948 and now viewed by most of the world as "Israel" or "Israel proper"? The 100 percent of historical Palestine occupied by Israel since June 1967 and shown as "Israel" (without any "Green Line") on maps in Israeli schoolbooks?

Israel has never defined its own borders, since doing so would necessarily place limits on them. Still, if this were all that was being demanded of Hamas, it might be possible for the ruling political party to acknowledge, as a fact of life, that a state of Israel exists today within some specified borders. Indeed, Hamas leadership has effectively done so in recent weeks.

"Recognizing Israel's right to exist," the actual demand being made of Hamas and Palestinians, is in an entirely different league. This formulation does not address diplomatic formalities or a simple acceptance of present realities. It calls for a moral judgment.

There is an enormous difference between "recognizing Israel's existence" and "recognizing Israel's right to exist." From a Palestinian perspective, the difference is in the same league as the difference between asking a Jew to acknowledge that the Holocaust happened and asking him to concede that the Holocaust was morally justified. For Palestinians to acknowledge the occurrence of the Nakba – the expulsion of the great majority of Palestinians from their homeland between 1947 and 1949 – is one thing. For them to publicly concede that it was "right" for the Nakba to have happened would be something else entirely. For the Jewish and Palestinian peoples, the Holocaust and the Nakba, respectively, represent catastrophes and injustices on an unimaginable scale that can neither be forgotten nor forgiven.

To demand that Palestinians recognize "Israel's right to exist" is to demand that a people who have been treated as subhumans unworthy of basic human rights publicly proclaim that they are subhumans. It would imply Palestinians' acceptance that they deserve what has been done and continues to be done to them. Even 19th-century US governments did not require the surviving native Americans to publicly proclaim the "rightness" of their ethnic cleansing by European colonists as a condition precedent to even discussing what sort of land reservation they might receive. Nor did native Americans have to live under economic blockade and threat of starvation until they shed whatever pride they had left and conceded the point.

2007-08-18 01:02:52 · answer #8 · answered by salah s 1 · 0 0

Arabs came from Arabia, what were they doing in Israel? They CONQUERED it just like the Turks who came from Central Asia CONQUERED modern day Turkey and kicked out the Greek native inhabitants.

funny how you think it is ok for Muslims to steal land and property and kick out the native inhabitants but when Jews return to there homeland, purchase lands and defend themselves, you cry victim. Munafiq

2007-08-16 08:01:01 · answer #9 · answered by ST 4 · 2 0

Technically particular, once you're a citizen of the U. S. you're an american. think of roughly it from the different perspective. If a white guy with a british accessory strikes to mexico and turns right into a citizen is he a "Mexican"? Technically particular yet come on. human beings might laugh at him if while asked what nationality are you and he says mexican and is thoroughly white and british sounding.

2016-12-12 03:47:45 · answer #10 · answered by ? 4 · 0 0

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