If mary is w/o sin then why the need for Jesus as the messiah? Catholics are full of false teachings.
2007-08-15 19:50:13
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answer #1
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answered by cloneology-servant of JESUS 2
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Read the bible and learn that the only one that is without sin is Jesus. Mary had as many sins as you and I do. The only difference is that Mary was good in the eyes of God at that present moment. What was the reason that God decided for Mary to give birth to Jesus , well I do not believe any one has that answer but God.
Do not believe in the dogmas that a religious institution has made. Hope this helps.
2007-08-16 02:47:45
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answer #2
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answered by helper100 1
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So, do you only want Evangelical and Fundamentalist Christians to answer, or can a Catholic who is a former Protestant (of the born again variety) give it a try?
Catholics, Greek Orthodox, Coptic, Anglican, and Episcopalians all believe that Mary was conceived without sin. (though it's tough to say what any Anglican or Episcopalian believes nowadays considering the splintering of their church...)
I don't see what your problem is anyway. Don't Protestants believe that everyone is born without sin, only a proclivity to sin? I thought that Protestants don't believe in Original Sin.
Catholics believe that everyone is born with the stain of Original Sin. BUT, Mary was saved from Original Sin at her Conception by Jesus' future death on the Cross (where we are all saved from sin). She was saved in advance so that she would be a pure vessel, fit to receive the Lord Jesus in her womb for 9 months. You can't put new wine into old wineskins or they will burst.
It's completely Biblical. When discussing the Immaculate Conception, an implicit reference may be found in the angel’s greeting to Mary. The angel Gabriel said, "Hail, full of grace, the Lord is with you" (Luke 1:28). The phrase "full of grace" is a translation of the Greek word kecharitomene. It therefore expresses a characteristic quality of Mary. The grace given to Mary is at once permanent and of a unique kind. Kecharitomene is a perfect passive participle of charitoo, meaning "to fill or endow with grace." Since this term is in the perfect tense, it indicates that Mary was graced in the past but with continuing effects in the present. So, the grace Mary enjoyed was not a result of the angel’s visit.
The dogma is especially fitting when one examines the honor that was given to the ark of the covenant. It contained the manna (bread from heaven), stone tablets of the ten commandments (the word of God), and the staff of Aaron (a symbol of Israel’s high priesthood). Because of its contents, it was made of incorruptible wood, and Psalm 132:8 said, "Arise, O Lord, and go to thy resting place, thou and the ark of thy might." If this vessel was given such honor, how much more should Mary be kept from corruption, since she is the new ark—who carried the real bread from heaven, the Word of God, and the high priest of the New Covenant, Jesus Christ.
2007-08-16 02:52:30
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answer #3
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answered by Dysthymia 6
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Hello,
I thought that idea was non catholic Christian also that perhaps has been forgotten. Martin Luther the great reformer himself brought this concept up:
Three hundred years before it was declared Dogma by RC's, the Martin Luther said:
"....so that while the soul was being infused, she would at the same time be cleansed from original sin...............And thus, in the very moment in which she began to live, she was without all sin." (Martin Luther's Works, vol 4, pg 694)
"God has formed the soul and body of the Virgin Mary full of the Holy Spirit, so that she is without all sins, " (ibid. vol 52, pg 39)
". . . she is full of grace, proclaimed to be entirely without sin. . . . God's grace fills her with everything good and makes her devoid of all evil. . . . God is with her, meaning that all she did or left undone is divine and the action of God in her. Moreover, God guarded and protected her from all that might be hurtful to her." (Ref: Luther's Works, American edition, vol. 43, p. 40, ed. H. Lehmann, Fortress, 1968)
Was this idea lost in the turmoil of the religious strifes somehow?
Cheers,
Michael
2007-08-16 03:09:09
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answer #4
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answered by Michael Kelly 5
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My Dad was a carpenter for a Catholic Church and I learned this theory about Mary. I have attended Baptist Church all my life, and we do NOT think Mary was without sin. She no doubt was a special woman, honored to be Christ's mother, but she is not a deity.
2007-08-16 02:45:59
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answer #5
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answered by winkcat 7
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In the Catholic Church it it taught that the Immaculate Conception refers to Mary but as a born again protestant I never heard that. Even before I was born again. We were always taught that the immaculate conception was Jesus
2007-08-16 10:03:04
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answer #6
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answered by Anonymous
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I don't know of any denominations that teach this (and it certainly is not Biblical)....I believe it is only Catholics. (But I was aware that Catholics taught it, as it is apparently a commonly emphasized teaching of Catholicism)
2007-08-16 02:43:28
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answer #7
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answered by whitehorse456 5
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Never heard that before. No scriptural reference for it, that's for sure.
Catholicism has many traditional beliefs that do not come from the Bible. For instance, how many angels does Catholicism identify by name? But throughout the entire Bible, the only ones who are referred to by name are Gabriel and Michael--and Satan if you count him among the angels.
2007-08-16 02:45:00
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answer #8
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answered by SDW 6
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disagree i believe that Mary was jest a tool to gine birth to Jesus.
2007-08-16 02:47:20
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answer #9
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answered by Pharaoh 3
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never heard of it. don't believe it; humans are just sinful. Christ, being God, was the only exception.
2007-08-16 02:43:51
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answer #10
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answered by Hey, Ray 6
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