2007-08-15 04:51:36 · 9 answers · asked by RIFF 5 in Society & Culture ➔ Religion & Spirituality
In the garden, God told Adam and Eve NOT to eat from the tree. How does one get free will from this?
In the 14th chapter of Isaiah which describes the fall of Lucifer, Isaiah reveals the reigning attribute of Lucifer's pride by reference to Lucifer saying 5 times "I will" do this and that. Is not God here revealing that He's not to fond of what is clearly a reference to the idea of "free will"? Can freewill be reconciled in our belief by understanding it with some other phraseology? In other words, is there some other name by which the man-made notion of freewill can be understood?Whom or what is the origin of this idea?
2007-08-15 05:07:49 · update #1
Tyler's Mate- You know, I'm not saying this to offend anyone, but I strongly suspected the influence of Roman Catholocism in this debate.
2007-08-15 05:09:55 · update #2
Papa G- thank you so very much. Excellent. My work is now cut-out for me for the rest of the day.
2007-08-15 05:24:16 · update #3
bigvol662004- Thanks for your answer. The insight is revealing and is helping me to put this puzzle together towards completion just that much more. Tyler's Mate's answer is another big part of this puzzle and is also very useful.
2007-08-15 05:27:35 · update #4
I don't believe so. The concept of God giving us 'free will' was inferred by Thomas Aquinas (and/or possibly Duns Scotus - there's a bit of historical dispute) and this evolved into Roman Catholic doctrine. Later Presbyterian theologians (notably Calvin) came to a different conclusion - pre-destination designed by God, essentially. 19th century philosopher and atheist John Stuart Mill wrote eloquently on the subject and shaped much of our present day thinking on the matter.
2007-08-15 05:06:26 · answer #1 · answered by Tyler's Mate 4 · 1⤊ 0⤋
The words unfastened will at the instant are not interior the Bible,it is only looks it rather is the way we've been taught. Matthew 7:7 and Luke 11:9 and Revelations 3:20 describes Jesus's present approximately salvation, it is fullyyt as much as us if we settle for him
2016-11-12 09:51:09 · answer #2 · answered by blaylock 4 · 0⤊ 0⤋
Leviticus 1:3.....If his offering is a burnt offering from the herd, a male, a sound one, is what he should present. At the entrance of the tent of meeting he should present it of his own free will before Jehovah
Philemon 14....But without your consent I do not want to do anything, so that your good act may be, not as under compulsion, but of your own free will.
2007-08-15 05:11:57 · answer #3 · answered by papa G 6 · 1⤊ 0⤋
The precise expression? No.
The idea? Yes.
Please note that both Deuteronomy 30:19 and Joshua 24:15
both refer to choice WITHOUT coercion.
2007-08-15 05:00:29 · answer #4 · answered by Uncle Thesis 7 · 2⤊ 0⤋
Free Will is a part of natural law - some consider natural to be God in operation.
2007-08-15 04:58:54 · answer #5 · answered by jmmevolve 6 · 1⤊ 0⤋
He INSTRUCTED them not to eat of the Tree "...lest thou surely die..." He DIDN'T have angels or something there preventing them from eating it! This is where the concept of free will comes from. God didn't FORCE Adam and Eve away from the Tree, He only told them not to eat of it and the consequences of doing so! The term "free will" isn't mentioned by name, but it's obvious that salvation works on conviction, not coercion.
2007-08-15 05:18:52 · answer #6 · answered by bigvol662004 6 · 2⤊ 1⤋
yes
2007-08-15 05:05:52 · answer #7 · answered by WhatIf 4 · 1⤊ 1⤋
in the oral law yes
2007-08-15 05:04:25 · answer #8 · answered by The Doctor 3 · 1⤊ 0⤋
Not as such, no.
2007-08-15 04:59:22 · answer #9 · answered by jonjon418 6 · 1⤊ 0⤋