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Jews can eat meat.
Jews can drink milk.

Jews are not allowed to do both in the same meal. What is the reasoning behind this religious law (besides saying "because God said so")?

2007-08-14 22:08:02 · 14 answers · asked by Anonymous in Society & Culture Religion & Spirituality

14 answers

http://www.jewfaq.org/kashrut.htm

http://www.religionfacts.com/judaism/practices/kosher.htm
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2007-08-14 22:21:41 · answer #1 · answered by Wise@ss 4 · 3 0

It is from the passage "Thou shalt not cook a kid in it's mothers milk". This has been interpreted to mean that meat is a corpse and milk is what sustains life. Therefore, the two should not mix. Many Reform Jews and some Conservative Jews do not follow this law any longer although Orthodox Jews and some Conservative Jews still do.
Dietary laws in Judaism are very complicated and this is a very small one.
Also, because most people mix milk and meat (stews etc) this insured the Jew did not mix much with the Gentile and was forced to keep himself more or less segregated.

2007-08-15 05:19:49 · answer #2 · answered by Feivel 7 · 0 1

most of the solutions have touched on the the main suitable option factors. the biggest's that Judaism has policies against cooking and/or eating milk and meat products at the same time (alongside with, by employing rabbinic extension, poultry). The regulations, even with the incontrovertible fact that are very complicated and practice additionally to the dishes we use, the learning procedures and the showering of the dishes and implements. There additionally are regulations approximately making the most of such arrangements or feeding to others. very complicated, certainly. Orthodox Judaism follows those regulations (even with the incontrovertible fact that, admittedly, there are those in the spectrum of "Orthodox" who're decrease than precise of their observance). the different, much less observant sects of Judaism follow them much less, yet some individuals do follow them.

2016-10-10 06:35:35 · answer #3 · answered by eidemiller 4 · 0 0

The specific Biblical rule is from Exodus 23:19 "...Thou shalt not seethe a kid in his mother's milk."

The Talmud takes great pains to make sure that the rules are upheld, going beyond meeting the minimum to ensuring the full spirit is upheld.

Some people believe that is helps to determine if the meat of the dairy was spoiled when people get sick after a meal.

2007-08-14 22:20:29 · answer #4 · answered by novangelis 7 · 3 0

it comes from the law of not boiling a kid in its mother's milk, which is a very obscure law that people don't really know the meaning of, and the ancient sages interpreted it to mean to separate meat and milk.

mystically, some have suggested that the reason is because milk represents life and meat represents death, and the two should not be mixed.

2007-08-14 23:12:11 · answer #5 · answered by Anonymous · 4 0

Apparently, and I could be wrong. But someone mentioned that it's not allowed because it's viewed as immoral to eat meat that is mixed with the mother's milk? Since there is a connection between an animal's mothers' milk and it's meat (or the milk sustaining it's life).

2007-08-14 22:22:16 · answer #6 · answered by Ms. Smiles 2 · 0 2

Why is it that Christians reply with the Christian version of Judaism. Why don't Christians have any curiosity about the Jewish version of Judaism?

Thank you for your question. I'm always pleased to know there are some Christians with an open mind! (Or maybe you're an atheist -- most of whom have an open mind.)
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2007-08-15 03:59:02 · answer #7 · answered by Hatikvah 7 · 0 0

basically its an ultra-broad application against the ruling of "boiling a calf in its mother's milk"

attached link explains better.

edit: by the way, Jesus has absolutely nothing to do with judaism whatsoever.

2007-08-14 22:19:09 · answer #8 · answered by Anonymous · 3 0

I think (don't quote me on this, and Jewish people are free to correct me if I am wrong) that Jesus set down diet guidelines. And they can only injest one product from a Cow in one sitting.

2007-08-14 22:11:53 · answer #9 · answered by ~~*Paradise Dreams*~~ 6 · 0 2

Many Jewish laws were man-decreed, and almost certainly this must be one of them, though I've not heard of it. When Jesus spoke about yokes ("my yoke is easy, my burden is light") He was referring to all the very heavy and unnecessary burdens of the law that were imposed by the Jewish authorities. There were other things like your example that shouldn't be mixed. No, God wouldn't have said it.

2007-08-14 22:24:01 · answer #10 · answered by Malcolm 3 · 1 4

it goes back to the law 'do not boil a kid in its mother's milk'.

2007-08-15 02:43:17 · answer #11 · answered by -♦One-♦-Love♦- 7 · 0 0

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