Many Christians simply ignore the non-practical, immoral, and unlawful laws in the OT by saying they were all justified by Jesus' death. But why do Christians so strongly oppose of homosexuality then? I guess it must be written in the NT too...but what are the verses then. What do they say?
2007-08-14 21:51:52 · 6 answers · asked by Anonymous in Society & Culture ➔ Religion & Spirituality
Here ya go
NEW Testament
1st Corinthians 6: 9-10
9Do you not know that the wicked will not inherit the kingdom of God? Do not be deceived: Neither the sexually immoral nor idolaters nor adulterers nor male prostitutes nor homosexual offenders 10nor thieves nor the greedy nor drunkards nor slanderers nor swindlers will inherit the kingdom of God.
Simple, In black and white
2007-08-14 22:01:00 · answer #1 · answered by kenny p 7 · 1⤊ 1⤋
Yes it's in both OT and NT. In NT you should probably look in Revelations and when Jesus is talking of the last days. Homosexuality is said to be a sin that men came up with. Which is why Christianity says no to homos. God made Adam and Eve not Adam and Steve. Personally I think Homosexuality is a sin jus like stealing and cheating. We have Thiefs and Liars and evrerywhere but you don't see us demonstrating against them. Give the poor fellas a break
2007-08-14 21:59:29 · answer #2 · answered by Linda V 3 · 1⤊ 2⤋
The Bible says nothing about consenting gay relationships, it does appear to condemn pederasty, same-sex rape and sacred same-sex temple "prostitution" but none of these are features of consenting homosexual relationships.
The acts condemned in the Bible were probably widely practised at the time by otherwise married heterosexual men...it was very commonplace then for married men to have sex with their young male slaves (Leviticus), same-sex rape was a form of humiliation typically inflicted upon conquered enemies and in the story of Sodom we read of the possible attempted sexual humiliation of strangers (angels), sacred same-sex temple "prostitution" (Romans) was in fact not considered prostitution at the time and was a common way of uniting physically with the deity of the Pagan temple. These things are not homosexuality per se so it is wrong to refer to them as homosexuality. Just as heterosexual paedophilia, rape and temple prostitiution are not referred to as heterosexuality per se.
Consenting homosexuality is not condemned in the Bible nor referred to there at all, the word "homosexual" is not found anywhere in the Bible except in poor translations. This alone does not necessarily mean the Bible endorses homosexuality but there is every reason to believe that the Jesus character would have approved of loving committed gay relationships.
2007-08-14 22:09:25 · answer #3 · answered by CHEESUS GROYST 5 · 0⤊ 0⤋
! Cor 6:
9 Don’t you know that those who do wrong will have no share in the Kingdom of God? Don’t fool yourselves. Those who indulge in sexual sin, who are idol worshipers, adulterers, male prostitutes, homosexuals, 10thieves, greedy people, drunkards, abusers, and swindlers—none of these will have a share in the Kingdom of God. 11 There was a time when some of you were just like that, but now your sins have been washed away, and you have been set apart for God. You have been made right with God because of what the Lord Jesus Christ and the Spirit of our God have done for you.
2007-08-14 22:08:35 · answer #4 · answered by djm749 6 · 0⤊ 1⤋
Both.
See:
Romans 1:18-32
I Corinthians 6:7-20
Galatians 5:13-21
Ephesians 4:29-5:7
Any reference to "sexual immorality" is meant to mean any violation of the laws of Moses regarding sexual behavior.
2007-08-14 22:03:02 · answer #5 · answered by SDW 6 · 1⤊ 1⤋
It is found in 1 Corinthians 6:9,10
2007-08-14 22:13:04 · answer #6 · answered by NOEL B 1 · 0⤊ 1⤋