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Which of these is the last words of Jesus. They can not all be right. According to the various gospels, he died right after saying each. Did he die three times?

Eloi Eloi lama sabachthani? ("My God, My God, why have you forsaken me?", Matthew 27:46 and Mark 15:34).

It is finished (John 19:30).

Father, into your hands I commit my spirit (Luke 23:46).

2007-08-14 15:32:58 · 20 answers · asked by Enigma®Ragnarökin' 7 in Society & Culture Religion & Spirituality

Scott B: yes, in fact it does!

2007-08-14 15:41:58 · update #1

20 answers

The first

2007-08-14 15:37:50 · answer #1 · answered by Maurice H 6 · 1 0

It only matters if you believe that the primary point of the gospels was to present a historical, factual account of Jesus' life and death. If you believe, however, that they are stories written and told primarily to make a POINT, then you have to ask what is the point that each of these authors was making? Luke and John present Jesus as much more detached. John especially portrays Jesus as calm, all-knowing, his life moving towards the inevitable conclusion on the cross ("It is finished.") Matthew presents a much more human picture of Jesus, because he's not writing to a Greek audience that views human nature as flawed. So we see Jesus in turmoil through his last hours, the picture of the suffering servant (Matthew is very preoccupied with ensuring that we know Jesus is the fulfillment of the old prophecies, too). If you read them for what they are (literature) you can peel back layers of meaning that are much more important than mere historical fact.

Peace to you.

2007-08-14 22:55:21 · answer #2 · answered by dreamed1 4 · 0 0

You didn't read far enough.

Mar 15:37 And letting out a great cry, Jesus expired.

Mat 27:50 And crying again with a loud voice, Jesus released His spirit.

I would say His second crying out were both the words written in Luke and John. John was the only one present at the time, Luke received his information from Paul and others he interviewed.

2007-08-14 22:46:30 · answer #3 · answered by BrotherMichael 6 · 2 1

I would say Luke23:46

Basically because the Matthew and Mark ones were because the Father had withdraw His presence from Jesus so that Jesus could really know what it is for those who are cut off from God by their own choices.

John is where he understands this and realizes that this was the last thing he needed to experience before He allowed His Mortal Body to die.

Then in the Luke verse...he allowed his mortal body to actually die.

2007-08-14 22:41:30 · answer #4 · answered by LDS~Tenshi~ 5 · 2 1

no. i believe that the correct ones are john 19:30 and luke 23:46. in the others, matt. and mark, you did not use the correct scripture that described his last words and subsequent death. in both of the correct scriptures in those gospels, it is recorded that Jesus cried out in a loud voice and gave up his spirit.

bear in mind that these gospels were written by 2 different people. what one heard may have gone unnoticed by the other in the passion of the moment.

anyone who knows how different eye witness accounts can be knows what i mean...

2007-08-14 22:51:00 · answer #5 · answered by chieko 7 · 1 1

It would appear the order of the utterances was that the first was that recorded in Matthew and Mark; the second was what was recorded in john; and the final words were those in Luke. I don't see why you see any difficulty in this.

2007-08-14 22:48:42 · answer #6 · answered by wefmeister 7 · 1 1

Luke wasn't there, he was going on what he heard from the disciples.

John was there, and that is indeed the last words He spoke.

The quote in Matthew is also true, He did say that too.

2007-08-14 22:41:46 · answer #7 · answered by arewethereyet 7 · 3 1

The POINTS being made in such allegory-ic "mystery" is
- having two Gods results in feeling wretched & forsaken
(about 800,000 PTSD soldiers will verify how such feels)
- of 2 "finished": Jn17&19, it is finished brings death, not life
- it's notably fearful to fall, into plural hands of Law Law God
Hebrews 13: Grace: I will never leave thee nor forsake thee
James 1: Law imputed sin, when it is finished, brings death
Hebrews 10: a fearful thing to fall, into the hands of living Law
Galatians 5: if justified by law, then you fall, from grace to law

Pst; Put the seven last utterances into the correct order,
to notably see what's in the "midst" of a menorah seven,
also what's in midst of seven candlestick churches in Rev.

Come on ppl, it's "allegory" and "mystery" to solve in time,
lest all perish by law law instead of none perish by grace.

The GRACE of our Lord Jesus Christ with you all. Amen.

2007-08-14 22:55:50 · answer #8 · answered by Anonymous · 1 1

If you notice, these quotes are from 3 different people. Just imagine, 3 of your friends witnessing your death from different angles. Each would have a different way of telling how you died. Its not wierd. Jesus said all of those things and then died. That's the most important point.

2007-08-14 22:39:51 · answer #9 · answered by LA Law 4 · 5 1

Well John 19:30 is actually a misquote...he didn't say: It is finished...it's a KJV misinterpretation...what Jesus really said was: Paid in Full!!!

2007-08-14 22:39:14 · answer #10 · answered by LoveUSA 2 · 2 1

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