why isn't verse 37 of acts ch. 8 in the NIV bible, or why is it at the bottom of the page. it's a very important verse. i read from KJV only but, i have read in NIV also, how do i reply back to your answers
2007-08-14 15:32:15 · 7 answers · asked by Bubbles 2 in Society & Culture ➔ Religion & Spirituality
If you read the foot notes in an NIV, that verse does not exist in the very oldest Greek manuscripts.
There are over 5,000 Greek manuscripts of the book of Acts and its only missing from 5 of them but they are the five oldest.
Are we really sure they are the five oldest?
I can't says since I'm not an Anthropologist of a Greek expert.
Some have suggested the reason those five oldest manuscripts survived is that people knew they had mistakes so they were used to make any more copies from.
Since they were not used, they lasted longer.
However that is just a guess.
There are other passages of Scripture to prove that one must be saved BEFORE getting Baptized so we don't need this passage.
If you still have questions feel free to contact me offline.
Pastor Art
2007-08-14 15:42:19 · answer #1 · answered by Anonymous · 1⤊ 0⤋
Dear Rita,
Check out this website: http://www.scionofzion.com/acts_8_37.htm
Apparently many of the manuscripts omit 8:37 and the NIV deals with this verse differently from other translations. The NASB and NKJV both "bracket" this verse.
Hope that helps. Kindly,
Nickster
2007-08-14 15:45:13 · answer #2 · answered by Nickster 7 · 1⤊ 0⤋
There are alot of verses missing from the NIV.
Do you understand now why the devil would want that certian verses removed from the Bible?
He does not want a host of Christians who are right with God and have power in prayer,
for they would prevail over him and his demons. Jesus said the key is prayer and fasting, and the NIV has removed the key.
`
2007-08-14 15:52:29 · answer #3 · answered by Anonymous · 1⤊ 0⤋
i believe that Acts 8:37 is a verse that some translators believe is part of the origional text, but others do not.
you should look it up in a concordance for a better definition.
hope that helps.
oh - go to the pencil and click add details.
2007-08-14 15:48:29 · answer #4 · answered by yarn whore 5 · 0⤊ 0⤋
The KJV is another version out of the old Bishops bible...the KJV is a good version but the newer one's are "better" translations. Example I just gave: Jesus never said: It is finished...on the cross...what he really said was: Paid in Full...the word is toltalistia...we never knew how to translate that word until 1969
2007-08-14 15:43:38 · answer #5 · answered by LoveUSA 2 · 1⤊ 0⤋
because the earliest and oldest manuscripts don't contain this verse
2007-08-14 15:40:23 · answer #6 · answered by Matthew 4 · 1⤊ 0⤋
It doesn't appear in all manuscripts.
2007-08-14 15:43:45 · answer #7 · answered by Levone 4 · 0⤊ 0⤋