2007-08-13 10:51:37 · 13 answers · asked by Anonymous in Society & Culture ➔ Religion & Spirituality
Lots of libido and having them as wives kept him from technically commiting adultery....however, I'd hate to see his bank account after they got ahold of it....
2007-08-13 13:23:23 · answer #1 · answered by genaddt 7 · 1⤊ 0⤋
Nobody ever said, that King Solomon was Jesus.
Jesus was the only man ever without sin, what Solomon did , was good old-fashioned sin, and people are still doing it today.God created man and woman to pro-create, and to have companionship with each other.
The people described in the bible were regular people, just like you and I and everybody else.None of us is perfect, until we get into our heavenly bodies.
2007-08-13 17:59:57 · answer #2 · answered by Anonymous · 0⤊ 0⤋
You made the hermenuetical error of presuming to derive doctrine from a purely historical passage.
Solomon was in fact wrong to marry as he did according to the Law of Moses:
Deut 17:16,17 "he shall not multiply horses for himself, nor cause the people to return to Egypt to multiply horses, for the LORD has said to you, ‘You shall not return that way again.’Neither shall he multiply wives for himself, lest his heart turn away; nor shall he greatly multiply silver and gold for himself."
Ne 13:26 "Was it not because of marriages like these that Solomon king of Israel sinned? Among the many nations there was no king like him. He was loved by his God, and God made him king over all Israel, but even he was led into sin by foreign women."
2007-08-13 18:08:57 · answer #3 · answered by Steve Amato 6 · 0⤊ 0⤋
Because he was the king. :-) And enough wealth and power will let them slip by the rules unnoticed.
I love how the Old Testament condemns the daughters of preists to burning for having sex outside of marriage.
Very consistent, if you ignore the elephants in the room.
2007-08-13 18:00:18 · answer #4 · answered by Dalarus 7 · 0⤊ 0⤋
That does not contradict the definition of marriage. He just happened to have 700 marriages. :-)
2007-08-13 17:59:40 · answer #5 · answered by Dumbo 2 · 0⤊ 0⤋
For each woman it was one woman to one man. From Solomon's perspective it was one man to many women. So I guess it depends upon your perspective & interpretation.
2007-08-13 17:58:25 · answer #6 · answered by Rance D 5 · 0⤊ 0⤋
He lived during the old testament, he was royalty, he was rich, it was allowed back then. In the time since Jesus came to the earth, we are to have one husband if we are women and one wife if we are men.
2007-08-13 17:59:29 · answer #7 · answered by ? 7 · 0⤊ 0⤋
Because he disobeyed God's commandment to not multiply wives.
2007-08-13 17:56:47 · answer #8 · answered by Anonymous · 1⤊ 0⤋
If you read it... those 700 wives were his undoing.
2007-08-13 17:55:53 · answer #9 · answered by Anonymous · 0⤊ 0⤋
That is a funny avator and screename. I wonder how many other people are picking up on your reference.
2007-08-13 17:59:11 · answer #10 · answered by Justin D 5 · 1⤊ 0⤋