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When in a bipolar manic state with psychotic episodes are the symptoms (i guess you could call it) similar to what those with schizophrenia? What would be a major difference between the two?

2007-08-11 22:34:55 · 6 answers · asked by 91 2 in Health Mental Health

6 answers

Yes, the symptoms can be very similar. The way the clinician or researcher would know the difference would be in tracing how the psychotic and mood disorder syptoms developed, i.e. which syptoms developed first. If the first syptoms that developed were elevatead mood, poor sleep, poor food intake, uncharacteristic irritability, and then developed psychosis (such as grandiose delusions) it's going to be considered bipolar disorder, manic phase, with psychotic features.

If the first symptoms that developed involved disorganized thinking, paranoia, hearing voices, and delusions, and then poor eating and sleeping developed, along with grandiosity, it would more likely be considered schizophrenia.

Another factor looked at by the clinician or researcher would be if over the course of a lifetime, are there more weeks/months where schizophrenia symptoms exsited versus the weeks/months where mood disorder symptoms existed.

Finally, the clinician/researcher would look at how the person functioned between psychotic episodes. Normal functioning between episodes would be suggestive of bipolar illness; with schizophrenia there tends to be residual symptoms (low energy, amotivation, poor social perception and socialization) between psychotic episodes. But even that is not always clear cut, because a manic person can enter a depressed phase after becoming manic, and if depressed will show low energy, amotivation, and be socially avoidant, so poor functioning between episodes isn't necessarily definitive.

Best way to get accurate information is by detailed history gathering, not only from the patient but from family/close friends/roommates who can sometimes provide information that is not available from the patient alone.

During the acute phase of mania or schizophrenia the medications are basically the same. Diagnosis becomes more important when someone's psychosis has remitted. At that point, mood stabilizing drugs would be helpful for someone with bipolar illness but not so helpful with someone with schizophrenia. Further complicating that however is research which suggests that some antipsychotic meds can be effective in mood stabilization over time as well.

In summary, I'd guess I'd say it's not always easy to tell the difference, and sometimes very good clinicians will disagree.

2007-08-12 00:00:24 · answer #1 · answered by Pat D 4 · 1 0

look them up in the DSM-IV. For one, schizophrenia is a psychotic disorder and bipolar is categorized as a mood disorder. There are different types of each. A person with bipolar disorder is not going to have hallucinations like a person with schizophrenia will. They are drastically different. A person with bipolar 2 (as opposed to bipolar 1) mainly has down moods with an occasional up. There's more to it than that, but seriously, the DSM-IV gives the best explanations- as well as qualified professionals- in mental health that is. (They need to have a Master's degree in counselor or psychology, for instance, or a doctorate in the same subjects.)

2016-05-20 04:51:33 · answer #2 · answered by ? 3 · 0 0

My Windows dictionary gives this definition of schizophrenia:
psychiatric disorder affecting the coherence of the personality: a severe psychiatric disorder with symptoms of emotional instability, detachment from reality, often with delusions and hallucinations, and withdrawal into the self
Encarta ® World English Dictionary © & (P) 1998-2004 Microsoft Corporation. All rights reserved.

And of bipolar:
having manic and depressed periods: characterized by shifts between episodes of mania and depression
Encarta ® World English Dictionary © & (P) 1998-2004 Microsoft Corporation. All rights reserved.

2007-08-11 22:38:46 · answer #3 · answered by Anonymous · 0 0

it was my understanding that Schizophrenia is not a preferred term any more because it covers too wide a field of illnesses. that apparently is wrong according to this link so thanks for leading me in the right direction. I think it answers your question.

2007-08-11 22:47:31 · answer #4 · answered by Anonymous · 0 0

Here's an interesting article:

http://www.schizophrenia.com/sznews/archives/001350.html

Kabum

2007-08-11 23:12:20 · answer #5 · answered by kabum 7 · 0 0

a few there are , but this are two differit diseas.

2007-08-11 22:50:06 · answer #6 · answered by Manoiu O 2 · 0 0

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