Yes. Title 26 of the US Code covers the Internal Revenue Code. Specific sections covering most citizens and residents of the entire area considered the United States of America are Sections 1, 61, 62 and 63.
http://www.law.cornell.edu/uscode/uscode26/usc_sup_01_26.html
http://www.law.cornell.edu/uscode/uscode26/usc_sec_26_00000001----000-.html
http://www.law.cornell.edu/uscode/uscode26/usc_sec_26_00000061----000-.html
http://www.law.cornell.edu/uscode/uscode26/usc_sec_26_00000062----000-.html
http://www.law.cornell.edu/uscode/uscode26/usc_sec_26_00000063----000-.html
Don't believe conspiracy theorists or tax protestors. While periodically, one will get lucky in a criminal trial, they almost ALWAYS lose or settle a civil action and end up paying more in penalties and interest.
2007-08-11 10:16:55
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answer #1
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answered by NGC6205 7
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What you're saying would desire to be technically real yet legally and almost irrleavant. There are criminal precidents out the ying yang and in case you study regulation you will understand that criminal precedents on occasion carry extra stress than the regulation itself. Taxation of the commonplace public by the legislature is the two criminal and proper and constitutional. the very shown fact that there is not any particular federal regulation that proscribes punishment is irrelavant, different than as an psychological interest. do no longer take this to point that the government is appearing illegally in requring you to pay taxes, it quite is merely a loopy man or woman's argument.
2016-10-15 00:08:13
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answer #2
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answered by bachmann 4
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No, actually there isn't! For personal income tax that is...I'm sorry, couldn't disagree with you more. I would like your definition of "voluntary compliance". The Supreme court already ruled that a mans labor is his own private property, and have defined income as profits or gains from corporate activity, Not a mans labor! Coppage v. Kansas 236 U.S. 1, 14 (1914).
Furthermore, in Stanton v. Baltic Mining, 240 US 103 (1916), the Supreme Court settled that the provisions of the Sixteenth Amendment conferred no new power of taxation. Also, check Peck v. Lowe. So in other words...if you weren't "taxable" prior to the 16th amendment then you will not be "taxable" after.
For Title 26 to be valid & legal has to comply with the Supreme's court decision not the lower courts! The United States Constitution strictly forbids a direct unapportioned tax on the wages and salaries of American citizens.
This is Not a conspiracy theory "NG" yes I agree with you that most lose, but does that make what the IRS is doing right. Let's stick to a rational conversation instead of labeling people as conspiracy theorists or protestors. Wouldn't they be true patriots if they actually stood up for the law, the constitution, and their rights? Or are you suggesting everyone should just become surfs?
I'll pay $1 million in cash to whoever can prove these 3 simple questions:
1. Show what statute written by the Congress of the United States that requiring Americans to file an income tax “CONFESSION” (return) and pay an income tax.
2. Show how Americans can file an income tax “CONFESSION” (return) without giving up their 5th amendment right to not give any information to the government that may be used to prosecute them.
3. Prove that the 16th amendment to the United States Constitution, which, according to the IRS and modern American courts permitted the income tax to exist was lawfully added to the United States Constitution.
Who wants to be a millionaire?
Jerry
2014-05-15 11:08:27
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answer #3
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answered by Anonymous
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Of course there is! Taxes could NOT and would NOT be collected without a law mandating them. Title 26 of the US Code is the law. Google it if you want to learn more. I'm sick and tired of answering the same old tired question.
2007-08-11 10:31:01
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answer #4
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answered by Bostonian In MO 7
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Is there an actual law stating that this question must be asked once a week?
2007-08-11 11:54:16
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answer #5
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answered by Plea_of_insanity 5
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