ie; Could a deaf english person communicate with say a spanish deaf person?
2007-08-11 01:32:45 · 10 answers · asked by cockneyboy 2 in Society & Culture ➔ Languages
I'm not hearing-impaired, but I live in a city with a college for the deaf. My understanding is that American Sign Language, or "Amislan," is what's taught and used here. It has some things in common with International Sign Language and with the sign languages used in other English-speaking parts of the world, by design. For instance, the sign or gesture for the names of universal items (mother, book, TV, car, school, beer, etc.) tend to be the same.
There are, however, differences which will vary depending on how far the person's version of sign is from Amislan .
2007-08-11 01:48:19 · answer #1 · answered by Anonymous · 0⤊ 3⤋
No. Each community has its own standards. Take for example the case of the Nicaraguan Sign Language. It is the result of KIDS communicating among themselves. The course their signs took isdifferent from every other sign.
Read the article in Wikipedia. It is better explained than what I can say.
2007-08-11 01:45:09 · answer #2 · answered by kamelåså 7 · 0⤊ 1⤋
Yes and No. There are many different types of sign language. So, take for example, someone from my country, Nicaragua, who knows the Nicaraguan sign language trying to communicate with someone who knows the sign language of the U.S. called Amislan, they won't be able to communicate unless they knew the same type of sign language.
Spoken language and sign language, there are many different types.
2007-08-11 01:46:48 · answer #3 · answered by Anonymous · 1⤊ 1⤋
Yes, if they both use International sign language.
As far as I'm aware, there are almost as many signed languages as spoken ones.
2007-08-11 01:39:45 · answer #4 · answered by John Dee 5 · 0⤊ 0⤋
No Americans use a different version to the UK
2007-08-11 01:41:27 · answer #5 · answered by Anonymous · 0⤊ 1⤋
absolutely not
each country has own sign language
2007-08-11 07:37:27 · answer #6 · answered by askawow 47 7 · 0⤊ 1⤋
only if they understood each others language.
2007-08-11 01:42:03 · answer #7 · answered by Anonymous · 0⤊ 0⤋
sure, with a middle finger; but really, no they have to "speak" the same language.
2007-08-11 01:40:53 · answer #8 · answered by Anonymous · 2⤊ 3⤋
it is universal, i mean y would there be different signs!!
2007-08-11 01:50:11 · answer #9 · answered by Nakshe 3 · 0⤊ 2⤋
yes!!
2007-08-11 01:42:28 · answer #10 · answered by fa$hion_guru 2 · 0⤊ 2⤋