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25 answers

Yes it does

Jesus went to the mount of olives to pray not talk to him self.
When Jesus was dieing he said why have you forsaken me , not i have forsaken myself
Jesus was dead then if Jesus was dead then god would be dead ...Who raised him
The bible states only god knows the time of the end not the son or the angels , if Jesus was god then the son would know.
Trinity is dogma
It makes no sense at all if looked at logically

2007-08-10 03:45:32 · answer #1 · answered by pestie58 the spider hunter 6 · 3 4

How is it that Jesus did Not KNOW this.. since you Mention his part of the Trinity?
“Concerning that day and hour nobody knows, neither the angels of the heavens nor the Son, but only the Father. For just as the days of Noah were, so the presence of the Son of man will be. For as they were in those days before the flood, eating and drinking, men marrying and women being given in marriage, until the day that Noah entered into the ark; and they took no note until the flood came and swept them all away, so the presence of the Son of man will be. Then two men will be in the field: one will be taken along and the other be abandoned; two women will be grinding at the hand mill: one will be taken along and the other be abandoned. Keep on the watch, therefore, because you do not know on what day your Lord is coming [Greek: er′khe·tai].”—Matthew 24:36-42; Mark 13:32, 33.

2007-08-10 10:49:26 · answer #2 · answered by conundrum 7 · 1 0

It makes perfect sense. That ONE SCRIPTURE disproves the trinity. According to the Catholic Athanasian Creed, which the trinity is based on, it says, in part: "And in this Trinity none is afore or after Other, None is greater or less than Another, but the whole Three Persons are Co-eternal together, and Co-equal."

"None is greater or less than Another." Those words go against Jesus' quote: "The Father is greater than I am." John 14:28

The trinity is a lie.

2007-08-11 18:05:32 · answer #3 · answered by LineDancer 7 · 2 0

When studying the Bible, you have to study it as a whole to get a true understanding of a scripture. This one verse may SEEm as if it disproves the Trinity, but if you peep plenty of other scriptures, you'll see that the Trinity IS a biblical concept, and this scripture does help support it, we would just have to do some digging to see that.

2007-08-10 11:00:45 · answer #4 · answered by LENZ 3 · 0 0

Tell them that while on earth Jesus fully submitted to His Father's authority. The Father is the head of the Divine Trinity ( John14:16; 1 Corinthians 11:3 ). Jesus, as part of the Trinity, fully understood His place.

2007-08-10 10:53:51 · answer #5 · answered by Anonymous · 0 1

It does not make sense as applied to disproving the Trinity.
The physical man, Jesus simply states in that verse that His body must die, and His Spirit will return to its rightful place in heaven.

More to the point, John 14:16,18,20,26 are proof of the unity found in the Trinity.

2007-08-10 10:48:54 · answer #6 · answered by Bobby Jim 7 · 1 2

8 See to it that no one carries you off as spoil or makes you yourselves captive by his so-called philosophy and intellectualism and vain deceit (idle fancies and plain nonsense), following human tradition (men's ideas of the material rather than the spiritual world), just crude notions following the rudimentary and elemental teachings of the universe and disregarding [the teachings of] Christ (the Messiah).

9 For in Him the whole fullness of Deity (the Godhead) continues to dwell in bodily form [giving complete expression of the divine nature].

10 And you [a]are in Him, made full and having come to fullness of life [in Christ you too are filled with the Godhead--Father, Son and Holy Spirit--and reach full spiritual stature]. And He is the Head of all rule and authority [of every angelic principality and power].

Colossians 2:8-10

and again (spoken by Jesus himself).....

10 Do you not believe that I am in the Father, and that the Father is in Me? What I am telling you I do not say on My own authority and of My own accord; but the Father Who lives continually in Me does the ([a]His) works (His own miracles, deeds of power).

The Trinity...or the Godhead is composed of 3 different entities. God the Father, God the Son, and God the Holy Spirit. They have different functions and operate in them, but they are all one in the same because they are all in unity.
All three of them are one....and have always existed.

~John 1:1-3~

1 IN THE beginning [before all time] was the Word ([a]Christ), and the Word was with God, and the Word was God [b]Himself.(A)

2 He was present originally with God.

3 All things were made and came into existence through Him; and without Him was not even one thing made that has come into being.

And lastly...so you you know He has never changed....

8 Jesus Christ (the Messiah) is [always] the same, yesterday, today, [yes] and forever (to the ages).

Hebrews 13:8

The Godhead has always existed...nothing will take away from God's power...and that's the devil trying to diminish the power of God by spreading a false teaching like that. If it's not in the word son...don't believe it.

2007-08-10 11:02:09 · answer #7 · answered by BLI 5 · 0 0

The Trinity doctrine is a man-made teaching. It is false. There is only one God, Jesus Christ.

When what Jesus said pointed to a seeming difference between himself and the Father, he was making it clear that humanity is not God.

As the Son of man he shared humanity with all men, but all men are not God, whereas, as the son of God, Jesus is unique among men, and is all God.

2007-08-10 10:54:43 · answer #8 · answered by hisgloryisgreat 6 · 0 0

In the bible the word trinity is never used. God is one not three seperate personalities. He has numerous roles. There is only one God and holy spirit, His name is Jesus. This is the name of the father, the son , and the Holy Ghost.
Samuel 2:2 tells you there is one God.

2007-08-10 10:56:10 · answer #9 · answered by God's elect 2 · 1 0

Over 40 times John's Gospel speaks of the divinity of Jesus. 28 times Jesus applies the "divine name" to HIMSELF... OK, 25 with 3 of them repeated by someone else.

Biblical truth of the divine nature of Jesus is very often distorted or confused with ancient heresies on both sides of the truth.

Some, like the so-called “Jehovah’s Witnesses” confuse it with Arianism. That is, as their translation renders John 1:1c, “… the word was a god.” The polytheism should be obvious.

Others confuse it with Sabellianism, or assert that the scriptural point of view claims Jesus and the Father are exactly the same “person.” This leaves us with a crazy guy running around talking to himself.

Neither of these views represents true Biblical teaching. The passage I cited above holds the key to understanding these three opposing points of view, though many English translations render it rather poorly. It is necessary to understand a minor point of Greek (the language John was written in) grammar to have a thorough grasp on the scripture’s teaching. To that end, here is an "Exegetical Insight" from a Biblical Greek textbook. The author examines John 1:1 and explains the differences between Arianism, Sabellianism, and BIBLICAL TRUTH very well:

The nominative case is the case that the subject is in. When the subject takes an equative verb like “is” (i.e., a verb that equates the subject with something else), then another noun also appears in the nominative case–the predicate nominative. In the sentence, “John is a man,” “John” is the subject and “man” is the predicate nominative. In English the subject and predicate nominative are distinguished by word order (the subject comes first). Not so in Greek. Since word order in Greek is quite flexible and is used for emphasis rather than for strict grammatical function, other means are used to determine subject from predicate nominative. For example, if one of the two nouns has the definite article, it is the subject.

As we have said, word order is employed especially for the sake of emphasis. Generally speaking, when a word is thrown to the front of the clause it is done so for emphasis. When a predicate nominative is thrown in front of the verb, by virtue of word order it takes on emphasis. A good illustration of this is John 1:1c. The English versions typically have, “and the Word was God.” But in Greek, the word order has been reversed. It reads,

και θεος ην ο λογος
‘kai theos en ho logos’ = “and God was the Word.”

"We know that “the Word” is the subject because it has the definite article, and we translate it accordingly: “and the Word was God.” Two questions, both of theological import, should come to mind:

(1) Why was θεος ‘theos’ (God) thrown forward?
and
(2) Why does it lack the article?

In brief, its emphatic position stresses its essence or quality: “What God was, the Word was” is how one translation brings out this force. Its lack of a definite article keeps us from identifying the person of the Word (Jesus Christ) with the person of “God” (the Father). That is to say, the word order tells us that Jesus Christ has all the divine attributes that the Father has; lack of the article tells us that Jesus Christ is not the Father. John’s wording here is beautifully compact! It is, in fact, one of the most elegantly terse theological statements one could ever find. As Martin Luther said, the lack of an article is against Sabellianism; the word order is against Arianism.

To state this another way, look at how the different Greek constructions would be rendered:

και ο λογος ην ο θεος
‘kai ho logos en ho theos’ =“and the Word was the God” (i.e., the Father; Sabellianism)

και ο λογος ην θεος
'kai ho logos en theos' =“and the Word was a god” (Arianism)

και θεος ην ο λογος
'kai theos en ho logos' =“and the Word was God” (Orthodoxy).

Jesus Christ is God and has all the attributes that the Father has. But he is not the first person of the Trinity. All this is concisely affirmed in και θεος ην ο λογος 'kai theos en ho logos'."

-Daniel B. Wallace, Dallas Theological Seminary.

Wallace is quoted in "Basics of Biblical Greek Grammar,"
William D. Mounce, Copyright © 1993 by William D. Mounce.

I transliterated (spelled with English letters) the Greek in the original and supplied a literal translation of Greek where necessary. -- συνεσταυρωμαι

... I think I have all the characters right now ;-)

2007-08-10 10:49:00 · answer #10 · answered by Anonymous · 3 1

IF the trinity were real, why didn't Jesus mention it?
He talked about his father's Kingdom.
He mentioned the angels a few times.
But never the Triune.
He even mentioned "sending" the Holy spirit.
And consider this, the Holy spirit existed befor Jesus.

2007-08-10 11:06:16 · answer #11 · answered by Wisdom 6 · 1 1

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