If the Trinity is ONE GOD then why does Jesus and God the father have two seperate "wills" ?

Question

The will of GOD is not three in one.

The will of God is monotheistic and the Trinity is polytheistic.

.

Answer 1

NO... You have it confused with Arianism.

Biblical truth of the divine nature of Jesus is very often distorted or confused with ancient heresies on both sides of the truth.

Some, like the so-called “Jehovah’s Witnesses” confuse it with Arianism. That is, as their translation renders John 1:1c, “… the word was a god.” The polytheism should be obvious.

Others confuse it with Sabellianism, or assert that the scriptural point of view claims Jesus and the Father are exactly the same “person.” This leaves us with a crazy guy running around talking to himself.

Neither of these views represents true Biblical teaching. The passage I cited above holds the key to understanding these three opposing points of view, though many English translations render it rather poorly. It is necessary to understand a minor point of Greek (the language John was written in) grammar to have a thorough grasp on the scripture’s teaching. To that end, here is an "Exegetical Insight" from a Biblical Greek textbook. The author examines John 1:1 and explains the differences between Arianism, Sabellianism, and BIBLICAL TRUTH very well:

The nominative case is the case that the subject is in. When the subject takes an equative verb like “is” (i.e., a verb that equates the subject with something else), then another noun also appears in the nominative case–the predicate nominative. In the sentence, “John is a man,” “John” is the subject and “man” is the predicate nominative. In English the subject and predicate nominative are distinguished by word order (the subject comes first). Not so in Greek. Since word order in Greek is quite flexible and is used for emphasis rather than for strict grammatical function, other means are used to determine subject from predicate nominative. For example, if one of the two nouns has the definite article, it is the subject.

As we have said, word order is employed especially for the sake of emphasis. Generally speaking, when a word is thrown to the front of the clause it is done so for emphasis. When a predicate nominative is thrown in front of the verb, by virtue of word order it takes on emphasis. A good illustration of this is John 1:1c. The English versions typically have, “and the Word was God.” But in Greek, the word order has been reversed. It reads,

‘kai theos en ho logos’
“and God was the Word.”

"We know that “the Word” is the subject because it has the definite article, and we translate it accordingly: “and the Word was God.” Two questions, both of theological import, should come to mind:

(1) Why was 'theos' (God) thrown forward?
and
(2) Why does it lack the article?

In brief, its emphatic position stresses its essence or quality: “What God was, the Word was” is how one translation brings out this force. Its lack of a definite article keeps us from identifying the person of the Word (Jesus Christ) with the person of “God” (the Father). That is to say, the word order tells us that Jesus Christ has all the divine attributes that the Father has; lack of the article tells us that Jesus Christ is not the Father. John’s wording here is beautifully compact! It is, in fact, one of the most elegantly terse theological statements one could ever find. As Martin Luther said, the lack of an article is against Sabellianism; the word order is against Arianism.

To state this another way, look at how the different Greek constructions would be rendered:

'kai ho logos en ho theos'=“and the Word was the God” (i.e., the Father; Sabellianism)

'kai ho logos en theos'=“and the Word was a god” (Arianism)

'kai theos en ho logos'=“and the Word was God” (Orthodoxy).

Jesus Christ is God and has all the attributes that the Father has. But he is not the first person of the Trinity. All this is concisely affirmed in 'kai theos en ho logos.'"

-Daniel B. Wallace, Dallas Theological Seminary.

Wallace is quoted in "Basics of Biblical Greek Grammar,"
William D. Mounce, Copyright © 1993 by William D. Mounce.

I transliterated (spelled with English letters) the Greek in the original and supplied a literal translation of Greek where necessary. -- sunestauromai

Futures_Inc: Phil 2:5 In your relationships with one another, have the same attitude of mind Christ Jesus had:
6 Who, being in very nature God,
did not consider EQUALITY WITH GOD something to be used to his own advantage;

Answer 2

The Trinity is a heresy. There is one God for sure we know this because of Duet. 6:4 and James 2:19,
There is nothing simple about explaining the godhead.
But the Scriptures are very plain.
Duet 6:4 says there is only ONE YHVH
John 1:14 tells us that Jesus is YHVH's WORD made flesh.
This next verse tells us the Holy Spirit will not speak of Himself. He receives no worship.John 16:13 Howbeit when he, the Spirit of truth, is come, he will guide you into all truth: for he shall not speak of himself; but whatsoever he shall hear, that shall he speak: and he will show you things to come.

People only read what they are taught. Most never pray and read for themselves asking Gods guidance. Very sad.

I believe both verses, The Shema, and The New Covenant verse James 2:19. There is only One God. The oneness of these are something we cannot understand in this present human form. Perfection in a united state. I wish we as Gods children would become more united in His awesome truth.

Answer 3

This is a good question but not impossible to answer (oh and by the way I am an athiest) but the way I see it is like this.

There is a man of 30 years old and he has a will to do something. Now this 30 year old man is both a son to his 50 year old father as well as a father to his 10 year old son. So in this way he has two wills. The will of a father and the will of a sone, and they are the same will.

I hope that helps some.
Shadow

Answer 4

Well, to sum it up... The Trinity is 3 in one. That is to say three part of one whole. The easy way of thinking about it ia a shamrock --it has three parts but it is one in the same. Read the New Testament of the Bible and you will see that Jesus prays to His Father and says....let Your will be done. Therefor, the will of Jesus is that the will of His Father be done.
P.s. Polytheistic means worshiping more than one god--the Godhead is one entity--read the book of Genisis carefully, and it should all make more sense to you. If you have any questions or feedback for me, don't hesitate to contact me.

Answer 5

The trinity is a pagan teaching that was not introduced until 400 years after Jesus was dead. The Bible itself never claims that Jesus is equal to his father, Jehovah. Yes God's name is Jehovah, Psalm 83:18.

It is because Jesus never said he was God. Jesus is the son of God. He is not the Almighty God. Jesus is an angel. In fact all through out the Gospels, Jesus gave all glory to his father and never once said he was God.

Mat 10:18 Jesus said to him: “Why do you call me good? Nobody is good, except one, God.

John 5:30 I cannot do a single thing of my own initiative; just as I hear, I judge; and the judgment that I render is righteous, because I seek, not my own will, but the will of him that sent me.

John 6:38 because I have come down from heaven to do, not my will, but the will of him that sent me.

Jesus is the promised seed. He is the first creation of God. He came down willingly to save mankind.

Now people that believe in the Trinity will quote a verse where Jesus says, "I and the father are one." but they mis apply it. Jesus was saying that he and his father are one in purpose and thought. Sort of like a winning sports team. They must act as one.

But to give other proof, at Gen 2:24 it says, "That is why a man will leave his father and his mother and he must stick to his wife and they must become one flesh."

They must become one, as in thought and purpose.

Answer 6

The doctrine of the Trinity is based on the differentiation between ousia and energeia. The Trinity is united in ousia (in the Platonic sense), but each hypostases maintains an individual energeia. "Will," or thelema, is classified as an energeia. But I can see how that might be confusing. The concept of ousia and energeia has been muddled in modern theology ever since Aquinas defined the essence of God as Actus Purus.
My advice? Either give up on this whole Trinity thing, or spend the two years necessary to understand it.

Answer 7

God the Father and Jesus will are the same.In fact I'm quite sure Jesus said that it wasnt His will but the will of the Father He was doing.

Answer 8

The will of the Father was what Jesus performed. They are one as we also are one creature flesh and spirit and we should put our flesh in submission to our spirit as Christ is in his flesh and in submission to the Father. If you are more than one person than God is more than one God as you are created in the image of God formed from the dust (flesh) God made you above the animals with an eternal (spirit) and you became a living soul. We are One man body, spirit and soul.
Made in the image of One God who is Father, Son and Holy Spirit.
Have you ever heard the saying the spirit is willing but the flesh is weak? Man himself struggles with his flesh to keep it in submission to the spirit. Jesus overcame temptation as a man and did the will of the Father.

Answer 9

You see, the Flying Spaghetti Monster has reached out with its noodley appendage and created God to make you ask this question. Wow, its more than a Trinity now.. crap.


you cannot disprove this.

Answer 10

They all have the same purpose. Christ sometimes says the will of the Father because he was in human form at the time. He was fully God and fully human. He was sent to do a tough job, you know.